Amazinggrace

The concept of public trust means that an appraiser must act: - in the public's interest USPAP establishes standards that are applicable in the appraisal of: - real property, intangible property, and personal property Which statement is TRUE regarding The Appraisal Foundation and USPAP enforcement authority? - The Appraisal Foundation does not have the authority to enforce the requirements of USPAP. Which entity is responsible for establishing education and experience requirements for lice...

The Appraisal Foundation has the authority to enforce the requirements of USPAP. - False Currently, the boards within the Appraisal Foundation include: - Appraisal Standards Board, Appraisal Qualifications Board, Board of Trustees Which Foundation board is responsible for USPAP? - Appraisal Standards Board Qualification criteria for appraiser certification and recertification are disseminated to state appraisal boards by the: - Appraisal Qualifications Board Which entity is responsible for...

When was the National Organization for Victim Assistance founded? - 1975 When was the Justice for All Act passed - 2004 When was the first crime victim compensation program established in California? - 1965 When did the first class graduate from the NVAA? - 1995 When were the first three victim assistance programs created? - 1972 What year did they proclaim National Victims' Rights Week? - 1981 What is victimology? - The scientific study of victimization including the relationships betwee...

What is victimology? - The study of Victims What rights are available to victims? - 1) Reasonable protection from the accused 2) Reasonable, accurate and timely notice 3) Not to be excluded from any public proceedings 4) Be reasonably heard 5) Reasonable right to confer with government's attorney 6) Full and timely restitution as provided in law 7) Proceedings free from unreasonable delay 8) Be treated with fairness and respect for the victim's dignity and privacy What is the bedroc...

All of the following is true of the Skeletal System except: - a. It protects our internal organs b. It acts as a storehouse for certain minerals C. It acts as a filter for the lymphatic system d. It produces both red and white blood cells Short bones are typically found in these areas: - a. Wrists b. Cranium C. Wrists and Ankle d. Ankles True or false. Babies have more bones than adults. – A. True b. False This bone is the longest and strongest in the human body: - a. Tibia b. S...

What muscles make up the hamstrings - semimembranosus, semitendinosis, bicep femoris Chondromalasis patella may be caused by - over pronated foot, weak vastus medialis obliquis, weak gluestus medius What is Bursistis - Inflammation of the bursa, causing swelling and pain What are bursa - fluid filled sacs between tissues What is eccentric - controlled movement in which you move toward an opposing force, rather than away. Lengthening of the muscle Example of eccentric muscle contraction - ...

What is the best course of action when a long time patient asks to be referred to another practitioner? - B. Provide him with a list of certified practitioners A 75 year old, quadruple bypass, obese patient who is also a transfemoral amputee come to you with a prescription for a suction socket with hydraulic knee unit and a dynamic response vertical shock pylon type prosthetic foot. You should: - A. Call the physician and suggest an alternate prescription Records do not fulfill all of their...

Which of the following patients is likely to be helped by a lumbosacral corset? 1. a thin person w/ a low back pain 2. a thin person w/ sciatica 3. an obese person w/ sciatica 4. an obese person w/ kyphosis A. 1,2,3. B. 1,24. C. 1,3,4. D. 2,3,4. - A. An ambulatory patient presents w/ a Rx that reads "TEDS BK". A certified orthotic fitter should: Call the pt's physician for clarification. Measure the pt's ankle, calf & foot length. Measure the pt's ankle, thigh, & leg length. Fit the...

Which of these ABC practitioners would be allowed to treat unstable spinal conditions and long bone fracture. - Certified Orthotist Spinal bracing helps to control back pain by all of these except - allowing free vertebral motion These are used to de-weight spinal structures by increasing abdominal compression - corsets Thermoplastic panels added to a corset - Enhance A/P control True of false. Static orthoses allow restricted range of motion against resistance at a fixed angle. - False T...

Describe the three ASAP tracking tools. - ED TRACK BOARD - FILTERED LISTS OF PATIENTS WITH EXTENSIVE CLINICAL INFORMATION FROM THE CHART. ED MANAGER - ENTIRE DEPARTMENT, ORGANIZED BY CARE AREA, WITH CURRENT STAFF LIST. ED MAP - VISUAL REPLICATION OF THE DEPARTMENT, CAN ZOOM IN TO JUST ONE CARE AREA. Name two ways to find a patient's status. - 1) BACKGROUND COLORS (USE THE LEGEND FOR MORE INFO). 2) RIGHT-CLICK THE PATIENT AND HIGHLIGHT THE STATUS TYPE. CURRENT STATUS HAS A CHECK MARK N...

Two links need to be made between Location and Service Area and between Department and Location. What are they? - ADT and billing True or False: Each Room record may contain only one Bed record. - False; while Epic recommends maintaining a 1:1 room and bed ratio, multiple bed records can be linked to a room record. Explain a reason why you would want to create a Patient List for your Emergency Department. - There are two primary reasons. 1) The ED tracking tools are periodically refreshed a...

During fetal monitoring, Type III decelerations are thought to be related to: • head compression • umbilical cord compression • uteroplacental insufficiency • placental abruption - umbilical cord compression Type III, or variable, decelerations are the most common type of decelerations. They are thought to be related to umbilical cord compression and intermittent decreases in umbilical blood flow. The arteria radicularis magna, or artery of Adamkiewicz, most commonly arises from: ...

How should you treat subglottic edema? - Racemic epinephrine An OB patient experiences uterine rupture during VBAC. What is the first sign? - Severe abdominal pain, tachycardia, or fetal distress. What nerves are effected with tic delareaux? - Tic douloreux (trigeminal neuraglia) mostly affects trigeminal nerve V, and also CN IX glossopharyngeal. The a-wave is absent on CVP wave form. The patient is in what dysrhythmia? - Atrial fibrillation. A patient experiences shoulder pain during TURP...

What is the primary function of the Subscapularis muscle? - Internal Rotation True or False: Proximal refers to being closer to the main mass of the body - True The Quadriceps Femoris refers to: - 1. Rectus Femoris 2. Vastus Lateralis 3. Vastus Medialis 4. Vastus Intermedius Which is the most common ligament disruption involved in lateral ankle sprains? - ATFL: Anterior Talo-Fibular Ligament What are complications of screw fixation for syndesmosis injury? - 1. Loosening 2. Breakage 3...

The primary function of the subscap is to move the arm in this motion - Internal Rotation T/F Synergy UDH4 console is a 3-1 system which contains a light source, 4k camera and an image management port - True All of the following are muscles/tendons of the RC except: Infrspinatus Supraspinatus Teres major Subscap - Teres Major T/F Synergy console has 4 times the resolution as standard HD - True T/F the labrum is a fibrocartilage ring that provides stability to the glenohumeral joint - True ...

What are the competitive features of the MP90 probe? - - Durable active electrode - Six ports for efficient suction management - Four offsets for effective tactile feedback on bone **Answer on test = all of the above When using the ApolloRF probe, the active and return electrodes are located where? - On the tip of the probe What feature does the Synergy system have that NONE of the competitors have? - It integrates with the Synergy imagine system The Biopolar ablation breaks down tissu...

What portal looking anterior on right shoulder what structure on left side of screen? - glenoid what is the correct number of portals needed for shoulder arthroscopy? - how ever many surgeon needs which of the following statements are false during a shoulder scope? - standard portal will always been in same spot posterior portal for shoulder scope should be placed in the palpable soft spot between _______ and _______ and inferior border of the _______ - glenoid, humeral head and RCR if a ...

The femoral footprint of the ACL is located on the: - Lateral Femoral Condyle Which of the following are common causes of ACL injury? - Changing direction laterally Stopping suddenly Landing from a jump Females are ________ times more prone to ACL injury. - 4-5 The Quadriceps Femoris refers to what? - Rectus Femoris Vastus Lateralis Vastus Medialis Vastus Intermedius Which of the major knee ligaments is not intra-articular? - LCL What is the most common ligament disruption involved...

Which patient population is more sensitive to dosage errors A. Male patients 25-40 B. Bariatric patients C. A patient with a history of polypharmacy D. Pediatric patients - D. Pediatric patients The National Patient Safety Goals directed at improving staff communication review the need for A. ensuring important test results are communicated to the right person on time B. transferring patients to the correct next level of care C. completing perioperative charting prior to transfer to the ...

How many medications does it typically take to be considered "polypharmacy?" A -Three B -Ten C -Twenty-four D -Five or more - D -Five or more The ANP knows that it is her responsibility to report certain things to the proper authorities. Which of the following is NOT required to be reported? A - gunshot wound B - suspected child abuse C - drug abuse D - stab wounds - C - drug abuse Drug abuse is not required by law to be reported. Gunshot wounds, stab wounds, and child abuse (actual...