Alpha 1 antagonist Study guides, Class notes & Summaries
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HESI PN Pharmacology Specialty V2 Exam 2023/2024 All 55 Questions Included
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1) A client is being treated for hyperthyridism with propylthiouracil 
(PTU). The LPN/LVN knows that the action of this drug is to: 
A.	decrease the amount of thyroid stimulating hormone circulating inthe blood. 
B.	increase the amount of thyroid-stimulating hormone circulating inthe blood. 
C.	increase the amount of T4 and decrease the amount of T3 producedby the thyroid. 
D.	inhibit synthesis of T3 and T4 by the thyroid gland. 
D. PTU is an adjunct therapy used to control hyperthyroidism by in...
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Stahl Chapter 5: Antipsychotics Exam Prep 2023.
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Stahl Chapter 5: Antipsychotics Exam Prep 2023. 
which FGAs are low potency and which ones are high potency? - ANSWER Low potency FGAs: 
- chlorpromazine (thorazine) 
- mesoridazine (serentil); QTc issues so 2nd line 
- thioridazine (mellaril); QTc issues so 2nd line 
 
High potency FGAs: 
- Fluphenazine (prolixin); available as LAI 
- Haloperidol (Haldol); available as LAI 
- Perphenazine (trilafon) 
- Pimozide (orap); tx for tourettes but QTc issues so 2nd line 
- Thiothixene (navane) 
- Trifl...
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MSN 571 Question Bank Pharmacology United States University 2023/24
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MSN 571 Question Bank Pharmacology United States University 2023/24 
Which instructions should be included in the plan of care for a patient who is prescribed ferrous 
sulfate? 
a. Iron compounds are not taken orally 
b. Iron does not absorb 
c. Iron should only be taken at night 
d. Antacids should not be taken with iron 
2. Which is the most common type of anemia? 
a. Iron deficiency 
b. Sickle cell anemia 
c. Folic acid deficiency 
d. B12 deficiency 
3. Which antibiotic class disrupts folate ...
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GMS 6504 MODULE 1-3 Exam 1 Questions and Answers Already Passed
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GMS 6504 MODULE 1-3 Exam 1 
 
Questions and Answers Already Passed 
 
What are System Independent Parameters? Affinity 
Efficacy 
 
What are the parts of a system that are identified as System Dependent Parameters? Number 
of receptors 
Cellular machinery 
Presence of other drugs 
- Competitive 
- Noncompetitive 
 
Affinity is Thermokinetic propensity of drug to bind to receptor 
 
Based largely on ΔG 
 
Efficacy is Magnitude of change of receptor shape/function upon drug binding 
 
Based on at...
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NURS 5334 Study Questions and Answers Exam 2 2022/2023.
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NURS 5334 Study Questions and Answers Exam 2 2022/2023. 
 What are the basic mechanisms by which neuropharmocologic agents act? 
o Can modify the disease process 
o Act at the sites of actions which is the axons versus synapses and steps in synaptic 
transmission and effects of drugs on the steps of synaptic transmission 
 Transmittter synthesis is the first step in transmission. What are the other 4 steps? 
o Transmitter storage, transmitter release, receptor binding, and termination of t...
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NURS 6630N Week 11 Final Exam Questions With Correct Answers Latest Update 2024 (GRADED A+)
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A 26-year-old female patient with nicotine dependence and a history of anxiety presents with 
symptoms of attention de cit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Based on the assessment, what 
does the PMHNP consider? 
Selected d. 
Answer: ADHD is often not the focus of treatment in adults with comorbid 
conditions. 
Question 3 0 out of 1 points 
Molly is a 52-year-old female that has a diagnosis of bromyalgia. She complains of fatigue and 
cognitive di culties. Which medication is the PMHNP most likely...
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NR 546 Midterm Exam 2023/2024 Questions AND Answers Update A+
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NR 546 Midterm Exam 
2023/2024 Questions AND 
Answers Update A+ 
What should the PMHNP consider when prescribing chemical restraints? - Answer-- 
allergy status 
-prior med hx for adverse drug reactions r/t the meds ordered in the chemical restraint 
-state regulations regarding chemical restrains must be reviewed 
Are the PMHNP and other staff liable if the client has an allergic reaction or adverse 
side effects to the drugs used for chemical restraint? - Answer-No. 
The client has been court-...
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AEMT Drug Cards, NREMT Advanced-EMT Latest 2023
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AEMT Drug Cards, NREMT Advanced-EMT 
 
Lactated Ringers - Trade Name: Hartmann's Solution 
 
MOA: Isotonic crystalloid solution, replaces water and electrolytes 
 
Indications: hypovolemic shock 
 
Contraindications: CHF, renal failure 
 
Side effects: N/A 
 
Dose: 20 mg/kg for adults and PEDS 
 
Naloxone - Trade Name: Narcan 
 
MOA: opioid antagonist 
 
Indications: Narcotic OD, coma of unknown origin 
 
Contraindications: hypersensitivity 
 
Side Effects: nausea, seizures, vomiting 
 
Adult D...
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NURS 660 Exam 3 Review Revised Questions and 100% Correct Answers.
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NURS 660 Exam 3 Review Revised Questions and 100% Correct Answers. 
1. What is the medication that is the antidote for alprazolam? (If someone ODs). 
a. In overdosed-administer Flumazenil (benzo antagonist)-Stahl-can reverse od or 
induce sz or withdrawal in pts dependent on benzos 
2. What is the MOA of pregabalin that makes it alleviate pain for people with fibromyalgia 
or chronic fatigue? 
a. Gabapentin and Lyrica are analgesic adjuncts that bind to open conformation of 
VS calcium channels ...
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NUR 660 Maryville University Exam 1 review questions with complete solutions
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Quetiapine (Seroquel) correct answer: Serotonin-Dopamine Antagonist 
Atypical antipsychotic 
 
How long does it take for quetiapine (Seroquel) to work correct answer: Psychotic and manic symptoms can improve within one week. It will take several week to have full effect on behavior. Recommended to wait 4-6 weeks to determine efficacy. May take 16-20 weeks to show good response on cognitive symptoms 
 
What does quetiapine do? correct answer: Decrease positive symptoms of schizophrenia 
 
What...