PHM 424

PHM 424 CIRRHOSIS EXAM What are the common causes of liver disease / cirrhosis? How does the liver filter the blood? How are hepatocytes arranged in the liver? What are the functions of zone 1 hepatocytes? What are the functions of zone 2 hepatocytes? What is the function of hepatic stellate cells? What occurs when hepatic stellate cells are activated in chronic liver disease? What are the complications of cirrhosis? What are the possible outcomes of abstinence from alcohol in alcohol-induced ci...

PHM 424 INFLAMMATORY BOWEL DISEASE EXAM What are the monitoring parameters of methotrexate? What are the adverse effects of cyclosporine? What are the monitoring parameters of cyclosporine? What is TPMT and its significance? Infliximab Certolizumab pegol Golimumab Natalizumab Vedolizumab Ustekinumab Tofacitinib Ozanimod What are the adverse effects of TNFa inhibitors? What are the monitoring parameters for TNFa inhibitors? (Men/Women) ______ more commonly experience Crohn's Disease (Men/...

PHM 424 PANCREATITIS AND DILD EXAM What is steatorrhea? How is chronic pancreatitis evaluated for with lab results? How is chronic pancreatitis evaluated for with imaging? What is the gold standard for diagnosing chronic pancreatitis in patients where the clinical and functional evidence of CP is strong but imaging is inconclusive? What is the clinical course of chronic pancreatitis? What are the treatment goals for chronic pancreatitis? What are the guidelines for chronic pancreatitis treatment...

PHM 424 – PUD, N/V/D, CONSTIPATION, IBS EXAM What is the MOA of metoclopramide? What are the major adverse effects of metoclopramide? How is pyridoxine used for nausea/vomiting? How is ginger used for nausea/vomiting? What are the patient-related risk factors for PONV? What are the anesthesia-related risk factors for PONV? What are the surgery-related risk factors for PONV? How are risk factors for PONV ranked and how does treatment differ for these categories? What is the prophylaxis r...

PHM 424 FINAL EXAM Doxepin (Sinequan, Silenor) - first-gen dibenzoxepin tricyclic H1RA Olopatadine (Patanol, Pataday) - second-gen dibenzoxepin tricyclic H1RA Diphenhydramine - Ethanolamine H1RA Pyrilamine - Ethylenediamine H1RA Chlorpheniramine - First-gen alkylamine H1RA Acrivastine - Second-gen alkylamine H1RA Hydroxyzine (Atarax, Vistaril) - First-gen piperazine H1R Cetirizine (Zyrtec) - Second-gen piperazine H1RA Promethazine (Phenargan) - Phenothiazine H1RA Cyproheptadine - First-gen pi...

PHM 424 MIDTERM EXAM What are the two antidiarrheal agents that are derivatives of meperidine? What are the chemical characteristics of H2RA's? How is the active metabolite of metronidazole formed? What are the characteristics of Δ1- corticoids? What are the characteristics of amino-salicylates? What does the addition of lipophilic groups do to amino-salicylates? Which functional group contained on multicyclic opioids is responsible for binding to µ and κ receptors? Which functional group M...