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National Registry EMT Test Bank and Full Exam Preparation 2025

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Which of the following is a component of patient advocacy? A. Administering medication without consent B. Documenting only critical findings C. Ignoring patient complaints D. Building rapport with the patient during transport to the hospital Rationale: Advocacy involves supporting and protecting patient interests — building rapport ensures trust and cooperation. The other actions ignore patient welfare or professionalism. What best describes a communication system capable of...

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National Registry EMT Exam Review and Question Bank 2025

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The main complication of suctioning the airway for more than 10 seconds is: A. Bradycardia B. Airway swelling C. Lung collapse D. Hypoxia Rationale: Suctioning removes oxygen along with secretions, which can quickly reduce oxygen levels, leading to hypoxia. • Bradycardia can occur secondary to hypoxia, not directly from suctioning. • Airway swelling and lung collapse are less common complications. What should you always do before suctioning a patient? A. Administer...

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Life, Accident, and Health Insurance Exam Study Guide with Practice Questions 2025

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Which type of business insurance is meant to cover the costs of continuing to do business while the owner is disabled? A) Disability overhead policy B) Disability buy-sell policy C) Business continuation policy D) Business overhead expense policy Rationale: Group-to-individual conversion must be guaranteed without proof of insurability to protect employees who lose group coverage. Rationale: A Business Overhead Expense policy pays business operating costs when the owner becomes di...

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LAH Insurance Licensing Test Bank and Study Resource 2025

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All of the following statements regarding annuities are true EXCEPT A) an annuity is classified as immediate or deferred, depending on when benefit payments begin B) the annuitant is always the same person as the owner of the annuity C) straight life annuities provide income as long as the annuitant lives D) the surrender charge serves as a back-end load when the annuity is canceled in its early years Rationale: The annuitant and owner can be different individuals (for example, a paren...

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LAH Insurance Exam Study Companion with Rationales and Explanations 2025

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Pure risk refers to situations that A) Always result in financial gain B) May result in gain or loss C) Only result in loss or no change D) Are never insurable Correct answer: C) Only result in loss or no change Rationale: Pure risks involve only the chance of loss or no change, such as fire or death. They are insurable. Speculative risks (A and B) involve the potential for gain and are not insurable. D is incorrect because pure risks are the foundation of insurance coverage. Specu...

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LAH Exam Comprehensive Study Guide and Practice Review 2025

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An Indemnity Plan A. Requires the insured to use only network hospitals B. Pays all medical expenses in full C. Provides the insured a specific dollar amount for services D. Covers only preventive care Rationale: Indemnity plans pay a fixed amount for services regardless of provider costs. Other options describe managed-care or preventive plans. A single premium cash value policy can be described as A. A policy that requires annual renewal B. A policy that is paid up after one...

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In-Depth CHEM 103 Final Review and Problem-Solving Workbook 2025

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True or False The fifth subshell contains four subshells. Correct answer: True Rationale: The fifth energy level (n=5) contains the s, p, d, and f subshells—four in total. The statement is true. T or F Fe2+ and Fe3+ are isoelectronic. Correct answer: False Rationale: Fe2+ has 24 electrons, while Fe3+ has 23 electrons—different configurations. Isoelectronic species must have the same number of electrons. T or F K+ and Cl− have the same electronic configuration as arg...

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Complete NREMT Exam Preparation and Practice Question Review 2025

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A client presents with hypotension, pulmonary crackles, cool clammy skin, and jugular vein distension after an acute myocardial infarction. Which type of shock does this presentation indicate? • Hypovolemic shock • Neurogenic shock • Cardiogenic shock • Septic shock Rationale: Cardiogenic shock occurs when the heart fails to pump effectively after myocardial damage, leading to low cardiac output, pulmonary congestion, and elevated jugular venous pressure. Hypovolemic shock lack...

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HESI Maternal Nursing Test Bank and Comprehensive Exam Review Guide 2025

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Which medication would the nurse identify as a potential cause for the formation of abnormally small eyes in the newborn if used during pregnancy? a. Estrogens b. Nitrofurantoin c. Methotrexate d. Valproic acid Rationale: Nitrofurantoin is an antimicrobial known to cause microphthalmia (abnormally small eyes) in the fetus. • (a) Estrogens can cause reproductive tract anomalies. • (c) Methotrexate causes CNS and limb malformations. • (d) Valproic acid leads to neural tube an...

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HESI Maternal Nursing Study Guide with Practice Questions and Answers 2025

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A nurse is caring for a newborn who has just been delivered via cesarean section and is exhibiting nasal flaring, grunting, and intercostal retractions. What is the most likely cause of these symptoms? a. Meconium aspiration b. Transient tachypnea of the newborn (TTN) c. Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) d. Neonatal sepsis Correct answer: b. Transient tachypnea of the newborn (TTN) Rationale: TTN is common in infants born by cesarean delivery due to delayed absorption of lung flu...

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