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Examen

Complete NREMT Exam Preparation and Practice Question Review 2025

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Subido en
31-10-2025
Escrito en
2025/2026

A client presents with hypotension, pulmonary crackles, cool clammy skin, and jugular vein distension after an acute myocardial infarction. Which type of shock does this presentation indicate? • Hypovolemic shock • Neurogenic shock • Cardiogenic shock • Septic shock Rationale: Cardiogenic shock occurs when the heart fails to pump effectively after myocardial damage, leading to low cardiac output, pulmonary congestion, and elevated jugular venous pressure. Hypovolemic shock lacks fluid volume; neurogenic has bradycardia and warm skin; septic shock presents with vasodilation and fever. A trauma patient presents with hypotension, distended neck veins, and muffled heart sounds. Which type of shock is this consistent with? • Obstructive shock • Hypovolemic shock • Distributive shock • Cardiogenic shock Rationale: These findings describe Beck’s triad—JVD, hypotension with narrow pulse pressure, and muffled heart sounds—indicating cardiac tamponade, a form of obstructive shock. Hypovolemic shock shows flat neck veins; distributive shock has vasodilation and warm skin; cardiogenic shock presents with pulmonary edema. Beck’s triad consists of which clinical findings? • Jugular vein distention, muffled heart sounds, and narrowing pulse pressure • Tachycardia, bounding pulse, and warm skin • Bradycardia, hypotension, and sweating • Cyanosis, tachypnea, and hypothermia Rationale: Beck’s triad defines cardiac tamponade. It reflects decreased venous return and impaired cardiac filling due to pericardial pressure. The other sets of signs describe unrelated hemodynamic states. A patient presents with warm, flushed skin, bounding pulse, and hypotension due to severe infection. Which type of shock is most likely? • Cardiogenic shock • Hypovolemic shock • Distributive shock (septic) • Obstructive shock Rationale: Septic shock, a distributive type, results from widespread vasodilation due to inflammatory mediators. Cardiogenic shock presents with pulmonary congestion; hypovolemic with cold clammy skin; obstructive with mechanical interference of cardiac output. Which of the following best defines hypovolemic shock? • The heart fails to contract effectively • There is inadequate circulating blood volume to maintain perfusion • Widespread dilation of blood vessels causes blood pooling • Mechanical obstruction reduces cardiac output Rationale: Hypovolemic shock results from blood or fluid loss, reducing venous return and cardiac output. Cardiogenic relates to heart pump failure; distributive to vasodilation; obstructive to mechanical barriers. The most effective immediate intervention for any type of shock is: • Administering antibiotics • Giving sedatives • Providing high-flow oxygen and controlling the cause (bleeding, obstruction, etc.) • Encouraging ambulation Rationale: High-flow oxygen improves tissue perfusion, while managing the underlying cause stabilizes circulation. Antibiotics only help in sepsis; sedatives worsen hypotension; ambulation decreases venous return. If the brain is deprived of oxygen, what occurs after approximately 6 minutes? • Full recovery of brain function • Permanent brain damage • Mild confusion • Cardiac arrhythmia Rationale: After 4 minutes without oxygen, brain cells begin dying; by 6 minutes, irreversible brain injury develops. At 10 minutes, death is likely. During management of a conscious choking adult, which sequence of actions should the rescuer follow? • Chest compressions followed by rescue breaths • Five back blows followed by five abdominal thrusts, alternating until object expulsion or collapse • Heimlich maneuver only • Blind finger sweep and rescue breathing Rationale: Alternating back blows and abdominal thrusts generates pressure changes to clear the airway. Finger sweeps risk pushing the object deeper unless it is visible. Rescue breathing is only for unresponsive patients. In a choking infant who remains conscious, which steps are correct? • Blind finger sweeps after each back blow • Five back blows with the infant’s head lower than the body, followed by five chest thrusts using two fingers • Five abdominal thrusts and then five rescue breaths • Chest compressions only Rationale: Infants cannot receive abdominal thrusts due to organ injury risk. Use alternating back blows and chest thrusts until the obstruction clears or the infant becomes unresponsive. During CPR, which of the following compression-to-ventilation ratios is correct for a tworescuer pediatric team? • 30:2 • 10:1 • 15:2 • 20:5 Rationale: In children and infants, two-rescuer CPR uses a 15:2 ratio to deliver more frequent ventilations. The 30:2 ratio applies to single rescuers regardless of age. A client with chest trauma has absent breath sounds on the right side, tracheal deviation to the left, and severe respiratory distress. What is the likely diagnosis? • Pulmonary embolism • Tension pneumothorax

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Complete NREMT
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Subido en
31 de octubre de 2025
Número de páginas
23
Escrito en
2025/2026
Tipo
Examen
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In-Depth HESI Maternal Health Study
Manual and Practice Quiz Collection
2025

A child is admitted with severe dehydration due to persistent vomiting and diarrhea. Which
finding requires immediate intervention?
a. Sunken eyes and dry mucous membranes
b. Capillary refill of 4 seconds
c. Urine output of 1 mL/kg/hr
d. Weak, thready pulse of 60 bpm
d. Weak, thready pulse of 60 bpm
A thready pulse with bradycardia indicates impending circulatory collapse due to hypovolemia.
Sunken eyes and dry mucous membranes are expected signs of dehydration. Capillary refill of 4
seconds indicates moderate dehydration, and urine output of 1 mL/kg/hr is normal.



A 5-year-old with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is receiving insulin therapy. Which finding
should the nurse report immediately?
a. Serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L
b. Blood glucose of 220 mg/dL
c. Fruity breath odor
d. Deep rapid respirations
a. Serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L
Hypokalemia is a life-threatening complication of insulin therapy in DKA. Insulin drives
potassium into cells, lowering serum levels. The other signs are consistent with DKA and are
expected until correction occurs.



A nurse caring for an infant with SIADH should monitor closely for which potential
complication?
a. Hypertension
b. Hypernatremia
c. Seizures
d. Polyuria
c. Seizures
SIADH causes water retention and dilutional hyponatremia, which can result in cerebral edema
and seizures. Hypertension may occur but is less critical. Hypernatremia and polyuria are
findings in diabetes insipidus, not SIADH.

,A child is prescribed digoxin. Which assessment finding would cause the nurse to withhold the
medication?
a. Heart rate of 130 bpm
b. Heart rate of 60 bpm
c. Vomiting after feeding
d. Restlessness
b. Heart rate of 60 bpm
A low apical heart rate (below 90–110 for infants or below 70 for children) is an indication to
hold digoxin. Vomiting may suggest toxicity but must be evaluated in context. The other
findings do not warrant withholding.



A nurse is caring for a child with bacterial meningitis. Which intervention is most appropriate?
a. Place the child in reverse isolation
b. Keep the room brightly lit
c. Maintain the head slightly elevated
d. Encourage frequent visitors
c. Maintain the head slightly elevated
Elevating the head promotes venous drainage and reduces intracranial pressure. The child should
be placed in droplet isolation, not reverse isolation. Bright light and noise increase discomfort,
and limiting visitors helps reduce stimulation.



A 6-month-old is admitted for febrile seizures. Which medication should the nurse anticipate
administering to prevent recurrence?
a. Phenytoin
b. Diazepam
c. Phenobarbital
d. Acetaminophen
d. Acetaminophen
Febrile seizures are managed by controlling fever with antipyretics like acetaminophen.
Anticonvulsants such as phenytoin or phenobarbital are not indicated unless seizures are
recurrent and prolonged. Diazepam may be used acutely during a seizure.



A 2-year-old is prescribed amoxicillin for otitis media. Which parental teaching should the nurse
include?
a. Stop the medication once symptoms improve
b. Administer the full course of medication
c. Give the medication on an empty stomach
d. Skip a dose if diarrhea develops

, b. Administer the full course of medication
Antibiotic therapy must be completed to prevent bacterial resistance and recurrence. It can be
given with food if tolerated. Diarrhea is a common side effect and should not lead to
discontinuation unless severe.



A child receiving furosemide for congestive heart failure becomes irritable and has muscle
weakness. Which electrolyte imbalance does the nurse suspect?
a. Hypernatremia
b. Hyperkalemia
c. Hypokalemia
d. Hyponatremia
c. Hypokalemia
Furosemide promotes potassium loss, leading to muscle weakness and irritability. Hyperkalemia
may occur with potassium-sparing diuretics, while sodium imbalances are not typical primary
effects of furosemide.



A nurse caring for a neonate with respiratory distress syndrome notes cyanosis and oxygen
saturation dropping to 85%. What should the nurse do first?
a. Increase IV fluids
b. Increase oxygen delivery
c. Notify the healthcare provider
d. Suction the airway
d. Suction the airway
Airway obstruction due to mucus or secretions is a common cause of hypoxia in neonates.
Airway clearance should be done first before increasing oxygen or fluids.



A 4-year-old with sickle cell crisis is admitted with severe pain. Which intervention should the
nurse implement first?
a. Restrict fluids
b. Apply cold compresses
c. Administer prescribed opioids
d. Place the child in high Fowler’s position
c. Administer prescribed opioids
Pain management is the priority in a sickle cell crisis, followed by hydration and oxygenation.
Cold compresses and fluid restriction worsen vaso-occlusion.

Which antibiotic is most commonly used as first-line therapy for acute otitis media in children?
A. Azithromycin
B. Ceftriaxone
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