Brianmahan

AP Biology Chapter 17 Guided Reading Assignment 1. What did Garrod mean by “inborn errors of metabolism?” Garrod was the first to suggest that genes dictate phenotypes through enzymes that catalyze specific chemical reactions in the cell. Garrod postulated that the symptoms of an inherited disease reflect a person’sinability to make a particular enzyme. 2. Describe the Beadle and Tatum experiment with mold in detail – use the diagram below to help. The logic behind both the exp...

AGNP Board Exam – Sexually Transmitted Diseases Prescription 1. Question: Which of the following is NOT recommended as an alternative treatment for bacterial vaginosis? Intramuscular ceftriaxone (Rocephin) Correct Clindamycin (Cleocin) vaginal cream Metronidazole (Flagyl) vaginal cream Tinidazole (Tindamax) orally Explanation: Intramuscular ceftriaxone (Rocephin) is not indicated in the treatment of bacterial vaginosis. Metronidazole (Flagyl) vaginal cream may be used if metronidazole o...

AGNP Board Exam – Neurology Assessment Exam 3 1. Question: Which of the following medications is NOT a serotonin 5-HT1 receptor agonist? Axert. Fioricet. Correct Maxalt. Zomig. Explanation: Fioricet is a combination of butalbital, acetaminophen and caffeine. Axert (almotriptan), Maxalt (rizatriptan), Zomig (zolmitriptan) are all classified as serotonin 5-HT1 receptor agonists, or triptans. 2. Question: A patient presenting with a transient ischemic attack (TIA) is taking nifedipine (...

AGNP Board Exam – Neurology Assessment Exam 2 1. Question: When eliciting deep tendon reflexes in the knee, the nurse practitioner notes an abnormal reflex in the right knee. This abnormality is probably consistent with a pathological lesion in which segmented level of the spine? Cervical 5 and 6 Cervical 6 and 7 Lumbar 2, 3, and 4 Correct Sacral 1 Explanation: The segmented levels of the deep tendon reflexes are: Ankle: sacral 1; knee: lumbar 2,3, & 4; Supinator and biceps: cervica...

AGNP Board Exam – Neurology Assessment1. Question: Which of the following medications is NOT a serotonin 5-HT1 receptor agonist? Axert. Fioricet. Correct Maxalt. Zomig. Explanation: Fioricet is a combination of butalbital, acetaminophen and caffeine. Axert (almotriptan), Maxalt (rizatriptan), Zomig (zolmitriptan) are all classified as serotonin 5-HT1 receptor agonists, or triptans. 2. Question: A patient presenting with a transient ischemic attack (TIA) is taking nifedipine (Adalat CC) ...

AGNP Board Exam – Men’s Health Prescription Levofloxacin (Levaquin), used to treat acute bacterial prostatitis, is a: fluoroquinolone. Correct penicillin. macrolide. tetracycline. Explanation: Levofloxacin (Levaquin) is classified as a fluoroquinolone. An example of a penicillin is amoxicillin (Moxatag); macrolide is azithromycin (Zithromax); and a tetracycline is doxycycline (Doryx). Question: Ciprofloxacin, used for the treatment of bacterial prostatitis, is a potent CYP1A2 inhibito...

AGNP Board Exam – Hematology Prescription Exam 1. Question: Folic acid (vitamin B9) is used to treat: microcytic anemia. anemia of chronic disease. macrocytic anemia. Correct normochromic anemia. Explanation: Folic acid (vitamin B9) is used to treat macrocytic anemia secondary to folic acid deficiency. Folic acid is necessary for purine and pyrimidine synthesis, and is required for nucleoprotein synthesis and maintenance in erythropoiesis. It stimulates WBC and platelet production in f...

AGNP Board Exam – Hematology Assessment Exam 1. Question: If a newborn develops a cephalohematoma, the newborn is at an increased risk for: infection. jaundice. Correct caput succedaneum. erythema toxicum. Explanation: Cephalohematomas are characterized by bleeding between the bone and the periosteum. Because of breakdown of the red blood cells within a hematoma, the infants are at greater risk for jaundice. They do not increase the risk for infections. Caput succedaneum is an edematous ...

AGNP Board Exam – Health Promotion Assessment Exa1. Question: According to the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force, older adults should be screened for colorectal cancer with sigmoidoscopy every: year. 2 years. 5 years. Correct 10 years. Explanation: The Task Force recommends screening with colonoscopy every 10 years, sigmoidoscopy every 5 years with high-sensitivity fecal occult blood tests (FOBTs) every 3 years, or FOBTs every year beginning age 50 years through age 75 years. Recommen...

AGNP Board Exam – Gastroenterology Prescription 1. Question: A 45-year-old woman has been taking oral omeprazole (Prilosec) 40 mg twice daily for the treatment of gastroesophageal reflux. To discontinue the medication the nurse practitioner would: advise the patient to stop the medication. reduce the dose by 50% every other day. reduce the dose by 50% weekly. Correct reduce dose by 50% every month. Explanation: For patients on a moderate to high dose of a PPI (e.g., omeprazole (Prilosec)...

AGNP Board Exam – Endocrinology Assessment Exam 1. Question: The earliest recognizable clinical manifestation(s) of cystic fibrosis in an infant is: History of poor intestinal absorption Foul smelling, frothy, greasy stools Meconium ileus Salty taste on the skin Correct Explanation: The signs and symptoms of cystic fibrosis (CF) vary from person to person and over time. Sometimes there will be few symptoms and other times, symptoms may become more severe. One of the first signs of CF that ...

AGNP Board Exam Eye, Ear, Nose, Throat Prescription Exa1. Question: Oral tetracycline (Sumycin), for the treatment of acute frontal sinusitis, should be administered: with milk. with meals. on an empty stomach. Correct with an antacid. Explanation: Tetracycline (Sumycin) should be administered on an empty stomach (i.e., 1 hour prior to, or 2 hours after meals) to increase total absorption and with adequate amount of fluid to reduce the risk of esophageal irritation and ulceration. It shoul...

AGNP Board exam – EENT Assessment 1. Question: AGNP Board exam – EENT Assessment Ophthalmoscopic examination of the fundus reveals small, rounded, slightly irregular red spots embedded in the retina. These findings are consistent with: superficial retinal hemorrhages. preretinal hemorrhages. microaneurysms. deep retinal hemorrhages. Correct Explanation: Deep retinal hemorrhages appear as small, rounded, slightly irregular red spots and are sometimes called dot or blot hemorrhage...

AGNP Board Exam – Dermatology Prescription Exam 1. Question: Systemic ivermectin (Stromectol), classified as an antiparasitic,: is primarily excreted in the urine. crosses the blood-brain barrier. has a high concentration in the liver. Correct is not well absorbed. Explanation: Systemic ivermectin (Stromectol) is well absorbed and is primarily excreted in the feces. It is distributed and highly concentrated in the liver and adipose tissue. It is primarily bound to albumin, with a half-l...

AGNP Board Exam – Cardiovascular Prescribing Exam 1. Question: Signs and symptoms of digitalis toxicity include: constipation and muscle spasms. bradycardia and tinnitus. headache and dizziness. blurred vision and persistent diarrhea. Correct Explanation: Signs and symptoms of digitalis toxicity include: confusion, irregular pulse, loss of appetite, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fast heart beat, and visual changes (blurred vision, blind spots, green-yellow color disturbances, halo effect). ...

AGNP Board Exam – Cardiovascular Assessment Exam 1. Question: The preauricular nodes drain lymphatic fluid from the: palpebral conjunctiva and the skin adjacent to the ear within the temporal region. Correct eyelids, the conjunctiva, and the skin and mucous membrane of the nose and cheek. mouth, throat, and face. posterior part of the temporoparietal region. Explanation: The preauricular nodes drain lymphatic fluid from the palpebral conjunctiva as well as the skin adjacent to the ea...

NURS 6630 Approaches To Treatment Of Psychopathology FINAL EXAM QUESTION 1 What will the PMHNP most likely prescribe to a patient with psychotic aggression who needs to manage the top-down cortical control and the excessive drive from striatal hyperactivity? A. Stimulants B. Antidepressants C. Antipsychotics D. SSRIs QUESTION 2 The PMHNP is selecting a medication treatment option for a patient who is exhibiting psychotic behaviors with poor impulse control and aggression. Of the available ...

2020 HESI OB – MATERNITY V2 EXAM 1. The nurse is caring for a client who had an emergency cesarean section, with her husband in attendance the day before. The baby’s Apgar was 9/9. The woman and her partner had attended childbirth education classes and had anticipated having a water birth with family present. Which of the following comments by the nurse is appropriate? a) “Sometimes babies just don’t deliver the way we expect them to.” b) “With all of your preparations, it must h...

2020 HESI EXIT V6 1. A parent tells the nurse that their 6-year-old child who normally enjoys school, has not been doing well since their grandmother died 2 months ago. Which statement most accurately describes thoughts on death and dying at this age? A) Death is personified as the bogeyman or devil B) Death is perceived as being irreversible C) The child feels guilty for the grandmother's death D) The child is worried that he, too, might die The correct answer is A: Death is personifie...

2020 HESI EXIT V2 1) The nurse knows which statement by the mother indicates that the mother understands safety precautions with her four-month-old infant and her 4-year-old child. A) "I strap the infant car seat on the front seat to face backward." B) "I place my infant in the middle of the living room floor on a blanket to play with my4 year old while I make supper in the kitchen." C) "My sleeping baby lies so cute in the crib with the little buttocks stuck up in the air while the ...