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A 27 year old female whose mother had breast cancer diagnosed at 36 years of age asks you if there are any precautions besides self and clinical breast exams she can take to determine her risk for breast cancer. You would appropriately respond: A. The patient should have started annual screening mammograms at 21 years of age and you will send her immediately. B. You would recommend to the patient that she receive genetic testing for the BRCA 1/2 genes. C. Self breast exams are suff...

What are the two stages from Piaget that are directly related to toddlers and early childhood? - Answer Sensorimotor Preoperational What is the sensorimotor stage? - Answer in Piaget's theory, the stage (from birth to about 2 years of age) during which infants know the world mostly in terms of their sensory impressions and motor activities What are examples of sensorimotor stage? - Answer - trying to roll over to reach a ball - object permanence - the concept that things con...

Which of the following statements is true about corn as an ingredient in dog food - Answer Corn is an excellent source of many nutrients Raw food diets can contain which of the following? - Answer Bacteria Salmonella Bones Why can bones in raw food diets for pets be considered hazardous to their health - Answer Raw bones can fracture teeth Jagged points can tear esophagus, stomach, intestines Bone frágüeme fragments can cause gastrointestinal blockage Which of the followi...

a pap evaluates - Answer cervical cells Gardasil HPV recommendations - Answer Males and females 9-26 CIN 3 biopsy pap result - Answer HSIL High grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL) encompasses the entities previously termed cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN)2, CIN3, moderate and severe dysplasia and carcinoma in situ. HSIL is a squamous cell abnormality associated with human papillomavirus (HPV). Though not all HSIL will progress to cancer, HSIL is considered to ...

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Nurse practitioner prescriptive authority is regulated by: a. The National Council of Sate Board of Nursing b. The State Board of Nursing for each state c. The U. S. Drug Enforcement Administration d. The State Board of Pharmacy - Answer b. The State Board of Nursing for each state Eight Information needed for the prescription - Answer 1. Date of prescribing; 2. Name of patient(s); 3. Prescriber's name; 4. Name, strength, and dosage of drug or device; 5. Number of refil...

Who grants the authority for Np's to apply for and receive a DEA number? - Answer The state that the Np is working in Who ultimately has control over prescriptive privileges? - Answer The state. What federal agency registers individuals who may prescribe narcotics and other controlled substances? - Answer DEA (Drug Enforcement Agency) The federal government has broad control over __________ _________, but it has no control over who may ______, _____,or ______ drugs. - Answer...

grapefruit juice inhibits the some cytochrome P450 enzymes system in the intestines. T/F - Answer true all of the following medications should generally be avoided in older adults EXCEPT: 1. doxazosin (cardura) 2. clonidine (catapres) 3. lisinopril (zestril) 4. carisoprodol (soma) - Answer lisinopril (zestril) Alpha1 receptors are found primarily in the heart, lungs, and blood vessels. T/F - Answer false which of the following is an important aspect for establishing a thera...

Describe the relevance of the Nurse Practice Act in any state for a nurse practitioner's practice, including prescriptive authority. - Answer -authority for NP practice defined by each state -Nurse practice acts are written by legislators (laws) and authorize Boards of Nursing to establish legal authority to define who may use the title of NP, the scope of practice for NPs, any practice restrictions, requirements to be credentialed within the state as NP, and disciplinary grounds for inf...

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Beery-VMI - Answer Visual-motor integration, visual perception, motor coordination (body functions, performance skills) Ages 2-adulthood (dementia/ post TBI) Tabletop Bruininks-Oseretsky Test of Motor Proficiency (BOT-2) - Answer Gross motor skills and fine motor skills 4 to 21 years and 11 months Tabletop & Performance test Peabody Developmental Motor Scales (PDMS-2) - Answer Gross motor skills and fine motor skills Birth to 5 years 11 months Tabletop & Performance test ...

Physiologic pH is maintained around 7.4 because carbonic acid and bicarbonate exist in a ratio of: - Answer 1/20 1. Long-term potassium deficits increase the risk of: - Answer Cardiac Dysrhythmia 1. A 19-year-old male presents to his physician complaining of restlessness, muscle cramping, and diarrhea. Lab tests reveal that he is hyperkalemic. The severity of his condition is not related to what factor? - Answer Age of symptom onset 1. Which of the following conditions is the m...

The phase of the interviewing process that helps put the patient at ease and establish trust is called the __________ phase. - Answer Introduction A health history that concentrates on acute problems is called a(n) - Answer Problem (or focused) history A health history that touches on major points without complete detail is called a(n) - Answer Inventory history A health history that is designed to chronicle events that have occurred since the patient's last visit is called ...

A 60-year-old man who had generalized atherosclerosis died 24 hours after having a stroke. A cerebral infarct was found at autopsy. Necrosis of the brain is classified as - Answer Brain infarcts are characterized by liquefactive necrosis. A 30-year-old woman who had leukemia was treated with bone marrow transplantation. She developed a skin rash that was interpreted as a sign of a graft-versus- host reaction. A skin biopsy was performed. In the epidermis, there were scattered dead epiderma...

The most common causes of left-sided heart failure include: - Answer Acute Myocardial Infarction Feedback: The most common causes of left-sided heart failure are acute myocardial infarction and hypertension. Acute or chronic pulmonary disease can cause right heart failure, referred to as cor pulmonale. The causes of right-sided heart failure include stenosis or regurgitation of the tricuspid or pulmonic valves, right ventricular infarction, and cardiomyopathy. Manifestations (rather than...

_____ is the aqueous component of blood - Answer Plasma Components important to know in plasma - Answer Albumin Gamma globulins Fibrinogen Clotting factors Normal value and function of the following: Albumin - Answer -3.5 to 5.0 -Carrier molecule -Fluid balance--> oncotic pressure to pull H2O into vessels (hydrophilic) Function of the following: Gamma globulins - Answer -Aka immunoglobulins -Immune response "G A M E-D" --every type of immuneglobulins Fun...

What is the mode of transmission for the hepatitis D virus? 1. Blood transfusion 2. Oral-fecal route 3. Sexual contact 4. Both A and C - Answer ANS: 4. Both 1 and 3 1. Blood transfusion 3. Sexual contact Page: 713 1. The hepatitis D virus is particularly concentrated in the blood of an infected person. Therefore, it is transmitted through contact with infected blood or blood products. 2. The hepatitis A and E viruses are transmitted by the oral-fecal route, usually via contamin...

Overview of the Blood - Answer •Blood •5000ml •Plasma •3000ml Hematocrit defined - Answer - % of RBCs [higher value = higher viscosity = thicker blood) - Example: Polycythemia may have Hct of 60-70% Types of Blood Cells - Erythrocytes [RBCs) - Answer - Transport O2 - Small disc shape - Lifespan = 120 days - Carry Hgb [ferrous oxide, also an acid/base buffer) - Made in the bone marrow - Iliac crest for sample in leukemia [after age 20 in the vertebrae, st...

2 major classes of cells - Answer Eukaryotes and Prokaryotes Eukaryote Examples - Answer animal cells, plant cells, single-celled organisms, fungi and protozoa Difference between Eukaryotes and Prokaryotes - Answer Eukaryotes-found in multicellular organisms, larger, contain a nucleus and organelles. Prokaryotes-single celled organisms, smaller, no nucleus, no organelles. Prokaryote Example - Answer Bacteria (Exs. E. Coli. and Rickettsiae), Cyanobacteria (blue-green algae)...

A client presents to clinic for the first time. The provider discovers that the client was diagnosed with Prader-Willi syndrome. What symptoms does the provider expect to find during this encounter: - Answer Hyperphasia, obesity, and strabismus a client with Prader-Willi syndrome, well-known to the clinic, presents today for an annual physical. This client is at higher risk and should be screened for what medical condition? - Answer Type 2 diabetes mellitus A new client presents to t...