Kaplan University

Why use fetal monitoring? Correct Answer: Primary goal is to prevent fetal and maternal morbidity and mortality (prevent injury and death to mother and/ or baby), to prevent bad patient outcomes. What percent of babies who experience a suboptimal event while being fetal monitored, develop cerebral palsy? Correct Answer: 3% of babies with poor tracing develop cerebral palsy What are most sentinel events due to? Correct Answer: Poor communication between providers. Most errors are traceab...

Hypoxemia Correct Answer: Decreased oxygen in blood Hypoxia Correct Answer: Not enough oxygen to supply organs Normal fetal PO2 Correct Answer: 15-25 mmhm What factors can change the maternal HR? Correct Answer: Intrinsic pacemakers (SA & AV node) Cardiac conduction system Autonomic regulation... Sympathetic, parasympathetic Humoral factors (catecholamines) Extrinsic factors (medications) Local factors (Ca, K) What are the 3 most common causes of decrease cardiac output in t...

A nurse is explaining to a pregnant patient the purpose of electronic fetal monitoring. Which of the following statements by the nurse is the most accurate way to describe the purpose of EFM? a. "EFM is a diagnostic procedure that monitors your baby's heart rate or FHR and your uterine contractions. b. "EFM is a screening procedure that monitors your baby's heart rate or FHR and your uterine contractions." c."EFM is a screening procedure that only monitors your baby's heart rate or FHR...

EFM paper speed - 3cm/ minute Ultra sound (EFM) - US transducer detects motion through ultrahigh frequency sound waves - it determines FHR by auto correlation compares successive reflected ultra sound waveforms at many points FSE - fetal scalp electrode (ISE) measures interval between R waves Value of EFM - used as a screen test, not considered diagnostic - normal EFM tracing = grater than 99% chance fetus with not have neurologic injury Normal FHR pattern detects what? - Intact CNS,...

Acceleration - -Onset to peak <30 seconds - >15 bpm above baseline by >15 seconds but <2 minutes -(Before 32 weeks gestation: peak >10 bpm and lasting >10 seconds) Prolonged Acceleration - >2 minutes but <10 minutes Early Deceleration - -Gradual decrease and return of FHR associated with a contraction -Onset to nadir of >30 seconds -Nadir occurs at the same time as the peak of the contraction Late Deceleration - -Gradual decrease and return of FHR associa...

Which of the following factors can have a negative effect on uterine blood flow? a. Hypertension b. Epidural c. Hemorrhage d. Diabetes e. All of the above Correct Answer: e. All of the above How does the fetus compensate for decreased maternal circulating volume? a. Increases cardiac output by increasing stroke volume. b. Increases cardiac output by increasing it's heart rate. c. Increases cardiac output by increasing fetal movement. Correct Answer: b. Increases cardiac output by i...

Which of the following factors can have a negative effect on uterine blood flow? a. Hypertension b. Epidural c. Hemorrhage d. Diabetes e. All of the above Correct Answer: e. All of the above Stimulating the vagus nerve typically produces: a. A decrease in the heart rate b. An increase in the heart rate c. An increase in stroke volume d. No change Correct Answer: a. A decrease in the heart rate The vagus nerve begins maturation 26 to 28 weeks. Its dominance results in what effect...

Ductus venosus connects ______ to ______? Correct Answer: Umb. vein to IVC Foramen ovale connects _______to______? Correct Answer: R. atrium to L. atrium Ductus arteriosus connects _______ to _______? Correct Answer: Pulm. artery to aorta Normal rate Correct Answer: 110 to 160 BPM Average baseline rate at 15wks gestation Correct Answer: 160 BPM Average rate in fetus with heart block Correct Answer: 60 BPM (intrinsic ventricular or nodal rate) Sympathetic effects Correct A...

Oxygen is transferred from mom to fetus via the placenta through? Correct Answer: Passive (Simple) Diffusion Intervillous space perfusion is dependent on? Correct Answer: Adequate Uterine Blood Flow Maternal Fetal Exchange is best promoted by which maternal position? Correct Answer: Either Rt or Lt Lateral What is transfer down the concentration gradient from higher to lower called? Correct Answer: Diffusion The most likely physical rationale for recurrent late decels after epidu...

Content on exam - -Pattern recognition & intervention: 70% -Physiology: 11% -Fetal assessment methods: 9% -EFM equipment: 5% -Professional issues: 5% Pattern recognition & intervention - -FHR baseline -FHR variability -FHR accelerations -FHR decelerations -Normal uterine activity -Abnormal uterine activity -Fetal dysrhythmias -Maternal complications -Uteroplacental complications -Fetal complications FHR Descriptors - 1) Baseline 2) Variability 3) Presence of accels...

SNV Correct Answer: Any sequence change that affects one base of genome SNPs are common ones Promoter Correct Answer: specific region of a gene where RNA polymerase can bind and begin transcription Nucleosome Correct Answer: 150 bps of DNA around core proteins Stop Codons Correct Answer: UAA, UAG, UGA Karyotype Analysis Correct Answer: Usually done at metaphase Detects trisomy, deletions, duplications, translocations Confirming test FISH Analysis Correct Answer: Fluores...

Patm Correct Answer: 760 mm Hg (mercury) PN2 (partial pressure of nitrogen in air) Correct Answer: Patm * PN2 (760 * 0.78) = 592.8 mm Hg PO2 (partial pressure of oxygen in air) Correct Answer: Patm * PO2 (760 * 0.21) = 160 mm Hg Alveolus Correct Answer: tiny air sacs of lungs which allow for rapid gas exchange Atmospheric pressure Correct Answer: pressure exerted by weight of atmosphere Boyle's Law Correct Answer: P x V = k. Inverse relationship between pressure and volume ...

transplantation Correct Answer: transfer of tissue or organ from one individual to another transfusion Correct Answer: transplantation of blood cells polymorphisms Correct Answer: small differences in protein coding genes allogeneic response Correct Answer: allele encoding protein is different, causing a reaction carbohydrate antigens Correct Answer: blood cells have these different antigens on their surface

Chronic granulomatous disease Correct Answer: Recombinant IFN-gamma ADA deficient SCID Correct Answer: Recombinant adenosine deaminase X-linked agammaglobulinemia Correct Answer: Pooled human gamma globulin DiGeorge syndrome Correct Answer: Thymus transplant in an infant Common Variable Immunodeficiency Correct Answer: Pooled human gamma globulin Viral integration into the cellular genome may convert a proto-oncogene into a transforming oncogene Correct Answer: True The i...

Can normal skin microbiota be used for the treatment of some human skin related diseases such as acne)? Correct Answer: - People have different microbiota in the skin, people with skin conditions have different microbiota in their skin - There are studies that have shown microbiota transfers from people with good skin to people with acne which have been an effective treatment ___________ surfaces are covering the lining all our internal tubes Correct Answer: Mucosa The epithetical that ...

Bonds between Ag & Ab (covalent vs non-covalent) Correct Answer: non-covalent hapten Correct Answer: antigen is combined with carrier molecules in order to trigger immune response adjuvant Correct Answer: Substance that increases the immune response to antigens What types of cells are directly involved in eradicating/killing/lysing the virally infected cells? Correct Answer: macrophages, neutrophils, dendritic cells T cells markers Correct Answer: CD4, CD8, CD25 B cells marke...

Neutralization Correct Answer: Antibodies will bind to viral particles and prevent them from being able to bind to viral receptors on the cel; surface. opsonization Correct Answer: The pathogen will be coated in antibodies. The coating is recognized by macrophages that have receptors for the Fc region of the antibody. The antibodies are then recognized by the phagocyte and the pathogen will be ingested and killed. complement fixation Correct Answer: Antibodies will bind to the surface o...

11) Group 1 ILCs are typically activated in response to infections caused by which of the following? -Extracellular Bacteria -Viruses -Helminths -Fungi -None of the above Correct Answer: Viruses 11) Group 2 ILCs are typically activated in response to infections caused by which of the following? -Extracellular Bacteria -Viruses -Helminths -Fungi -None of the above Correct Answer: Helminths 11) Why are neutrophil transfusions rarely used in treatment of Severe Combined Neutropeni...

A vaccine is attempting to stimulate the adaptive immune system to create memory. (slide 1:2) a. true b. false Correct Answer: a. true A vaccine is attempting to stimulate the adaptive immune system to create a better innate response. (slide 1:2) a. true b. false Correct Answer: b. false *A vaccine is attempting to stimulate the adaptive immune system to create MEMORY. However, we are just beginning to appreciate the role of the innate immune system in this process. In order t...

ABO blood groups Correct Answer: carbohydrate antigens on the surface of blood cells determine blood type primary lymphoid organs Correct Answer: bone marrow and thymus circulating leukocytes Correct Answer: mature immune cells that circulate through blood vessels innate immunity Correct Answer: mechanisms that exist prior to infection and are capable of rapid responses to microbes adaptive immunity Correct Answer: a more complex defense system against infection that requires so...