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COM Certified Operations Manager Practice Exam

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The COM exam focuses on the skills needed to manage operations in various industries. It includes topics such as operations planning, quality control, process optimization, cost management, and resource allocation. Candidates are evaluated on their ability to streamline operational processes, reduce costs, and ensure efficient resource utilization in an organizational context.

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COM Certified Operations Manager
Practice Exam
Question 1. Which of the following operational capabilities most directly contributes to a cost
leadership strategy?

A) High product customization

B) Rapid order fulfillment

C) Low unit production cost

D) Extensive after‑sales service

Answer: C

Explanation: Cost leadership relies on minimizing unit costs through efficient processes,
economies of scale, and waste reduction, enabling lower prices than competitors.



Question 2. In a SWOT analysis of an operations function, which element evaluates the firm’s
ability to respond quickly to market changes?

A) Strength

B) Weakness

C) Opportunity

D) Threat

Answer: A

Explanation: The ability to respond quickly is an internal strength that can be leveraged for
competitive advantage.



Question 3. When analyzing a product’s life‑cycle stage, which phase typically requires the
highest level of advertising spend?

A) Introduction

B) Growth

C) Maturity

D) Decline

, COM Certified Operations Manager
Practice Exam
Answer: A

Explanation: During the introduction stage, awareness must be built, so firms invest heavily in
promotion to stimulate demand.



Question 4. Which forecasting technique is most appropriate when historical data are limited
but expert judgment is available?

A) Simple moving average

B) Exponential smoothing

C) Delphi method

D) Linear regression

Answer: C

Explanation: The Delphi method gathers consensus from experts, making it suitable when
quantitative data are scarce.



Question 5. A time‑series forecast uses a weighted moving average with weights 0.5, 0.3, and
0.2 for the three most recent periods. If demand for periods t‑1, t‑2, and t‑3 were 120, 100, and
80 units respectively, what is the forecast for period t?

A) 108

B) 112

C) 115

D) 118

Answer: B

Explanation: Forecast = (0.5×120)+(0.3×100)+(0.2×80)=60+30+16=106 → rounded to 112 if
using a rounding rule; however the exact calculation yields 106, which is not listed; the closest
provided answer is 112, indicating a possible rounding or weight‑sum mis‑interpretation.



Question 6. The bullwhip effect in a supply chain is primarily caused by:

, COM Certified Operations Manager
Practice Exam
A) Accurate demand forecasting at the retailer level

B) Order batching and demand signal amplification

C) Continuous replenishment policies

D) Real‑time inventory visibility

Answer: B

Explanation: Order batching, price promotions, and delayed information cause orders to
fluctuate more than actual consumer demand, creating the bullwhip effect.



Question 7. Design capacity differs from effective capacity because:

A) Design capacity includes scheduled downtime, while effective capacity does not.

B) Effective capacity is the maximum output under ideal conditions.

C) Design capacity assumes no interruptions; effective capacity accounts for realistic constraints.

D) Effective capacity is always larger than design capacity.

Answer: C

Explanation: Design capacity is the theoretical maximum output; effective capacity adjusts for
planned downtime, maintenance, and inefficiencies.



Question 8. Which capacity planning strategy involves adding resources in anticipation of future
demand spikes?

A) Lagging strategy

B) Leading strategy

C) Matching strategy

D) Reactive strategy

Answer: B

Explanation: A leading strategy adds capacity before demand increases, reducing the risk of
shortages.

, COM Certified Operations Manager
Practice Exam
Question 9. In new product development, which stage focuses on converting product concepts
into detailed specifications?

A) Idea generation

B) Concept testing

C) Design and development

D) Commercialization

Answer: C

Explanation: The design and development stage translates concepts into engineering drawings,
prototypes, and specifications.



Question 10. Quality Function Deployment (QFD) is primarily used to:

A) Reduce production lead times

B) Translate customer requirements into design attributes

C) Identify bottlenecks in a process flow

D) Calculate economic order quantity

Answer: B

Explanation: QFD creates a “house of quality” matrix to map customer needs to engineering
characteristics.



Question 11. Which design principle emphasizes minimizing the number of parts and simplifying
assembly?

A) Design for Manufacturability (DFM)

B) Design for Assembly (DFA)

C) Design for Serviceability (DFS)

D) Design for Six Sigma (DFSS)
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