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TEXAS ATHLETIC TRAINER LICENSING LEVEL II EXAM, QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES 2026 Q&A | INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF

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TEXAS ATHLETIC TRAINER LICENSING LEVEL II EXAM, QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES 2026 Q&A | INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF

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TEXAS ATHLETIC TRAINER LICENSING LEVEL II
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TEXAS ATHLETIC TRAINER LICENSING LEVEL II

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December 10, 2025
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Written in
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TEXAS ATHLETIC TRAINER LICENSING LEVEL II
EXAM, QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES 2026
Q&A | INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF

1. What is the primary goal of pre-participation physical examinations
for athletes?
A. Diagnose existing injuries
B. Prevent future injuries
C. Determine athletic potential
D. Assess academic performance
Answer: B
Rationale: Pre-participation physical exams are designed primarily to
identify risk factors and prevent injuries before they occur.


2. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate
management for a suspected anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) injury?
A. Heat application
B. Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation (RICE)
C. Aggressive stretching
D. Massage therapy
Answer: B
Rationale: Acute ligament injuries require the RICE protocol to reduce
swelling and prevent further damage.

,3. What is the recommended frequency of hydration during intense
athletic activity?
A. Every 5–10 minutes
B. Every 15–20 minutes
C. Only after activity
D. Only if thirsty
Answer: B
Rationale: Athletes should hydrate at regular intervals (15–20 minutes)
to maintain fluid balance and prevent dehydration.


4. Which type of muscle contraction occurs when a muscle lengthens
under tension?
A. Concentric
B. Eccentric
C. Isometric
D. Isokinetic
Answer: B
Rationale: Eccentric contractions involve lengthening of the muscle
while generating force, common in deceleration movements.


5. Which of the following is a sign of a heat stroke?
A. Profuse sweating
B. Cool, pale skin
C. High body temperature and altered mental status
D. Mild fatigue
Answer: C
Rationale: Heat stroke is characterized by hyperthermia and central

,nervous system dysfunction; immediate medical intervention is
required.


6. The best method to prevent the spread of bloodborne pathogens is:
A. Wearing gloves only when treating deep wounds
B. Hand hygiene and universal precautions
C. Using alcohol on intact skin
D. Avoiding contact with athletes
Answer: B
Rationale: Universal precautions and proper hand hygiene prevent
transmission of bloodborne pathogens like HIV and hepatitis.


7. What is the primary purpose of a splint in acute injury
management?
A. Increase circulation
B. Immobilize and prevent further injury
C. Improve flexibility
D. Reduce muscle strength
Answer: B
Rationale: Splinting stabilizes the injured area, prevents further
damage, and minimizes pain.


8. Which of the following injuries is most likely to produce a “pop”
sound at the time of injury?
A. Muscle strain
B. Ligament tear

, C. Contusion
D. Tendinitis
Answer: B
Rationale: Ligament tears, such as ACL injuries, often present with a
popping sound at the moment of injury.


9. What is the main difference between a strain and a sprain?
A. Strain involves ligaments; sprain involves muscles
B. Strain involves muscles; sprain involves ligaments
C. Strain is chronic; sprain is acute
D. There is no difference
Answer: B
Rationale: A strain is an injury to muscle or tendon, whereas a sprain
involves stretching or tearing of ligaments.


10. Which of the following best describes the PRICE principle for acute
injury management?
A. Protect, Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation
B. Prevent, Rest, Immobilize, Cool, Exercise
C. Protect, Rotate, Ice, Compress, Elevate
D. Pressure, Rest, Immobilize, Cool, Exercise
Answer: A
Rationale: PRICE is a standard protocol for managing acute injuries to
reduce pain and swelling.


11. What is the most common site for a stress fracture in runners?
A. Tibia

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