Midterm Exam: NUR 2092 / NUR2092 Health Assessment
| ACTUAL FINAL EXAM | Questions & Verified Answers |
Latest Update – Rasmussen College
Question 1
A 68-year-old woman reports “feeling dizzy when I get out of bed.” Which focused
health-history question best clarifies the symptom onset?
A. “When exactly does the dizziness begin and how long does it last?”
B. “Do you have a history of anxiety?”
C. “Have you taken any new antibiotics?”
D. “Does anyone in your family have vertigo?”
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A precise description of timing, duration, and positional triggers (A)
distinguishes orthostatic hypotension, BPPV, or vestibular disorders. Anxiety history (B)
is secondary; antibiotics (C) are not first-line triggers for bedside dizziness; family
history (D) is epidemiologically useful but does not clarify the immediate symptom
pattern.
,Question 2
During inspection of the fingernails, the nurse notes a convex curve with loss of normal
160° angle. Which document entry is most accurate?
A. Early clubbing noted
B. Paronychia present
C. Beau lines identified
D. Splinter hemorrhages observed
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A convex nail and loss of the normal Lovibond angle are early signs of
clubbing, often associated with chronic hypoxia. Paronychia (B) is infection of the nail
fold; Beau lines (C) are transverse depressions indicating temporary growth arrest;
splinter hemorrhages (D) are linear streaks associated with infective endocarditis or
trauma.
Question 3
A patient’s radial pulse is irregularly irregular at 88 bpm. Which action should the nurse
take FIRST?
A. Auscultate an apical pulse for one full minute
,B. Reassess the radial pulse in 30 minutes
C. Obtain a 12-lead ECG immediately
D. Document the finding as sinus arrhythmia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An irregularly irregular radial pulse suggests atrial fibrillation; auscultating the
apical pulse for a full minute (A) confirms rate and rhythm and detects pulse deficits.
Reassessment (B) delays evaluation; ECG (C) is appropriate but not the FIRST bedside
step; sinus arrhythmia (D) is regularly irregular with respiration and is not irregularly
irregular.
Question 4
When assessing a patient’s lung sounds, the nurse hears loud, high-pitched crowing
sounds over the trachea during inspiration and expiration. This is BEST documented as:
A. Stridor
B. Wheezes
C. Crackles
D. Bronchophony
Correct Answer: A
, Rationale: Loud, high-pitched crowing over the trachea is stridor, indicating upper-airway
obstruction. Wheezes (B) are musical and heard over bronchi; crackles (D) are fine,
popping sounds of alveolar opening; bronchophony (D) is a spoken-word test for
consolidation.
Question 5
A 22-year-old man describes a 3-day history of “blurry vision” and “pain when I look at
bright lights.” Visual acuity is 20/20 OU. Which cranial nerve should the nurse assess
NEXT?
A. CN II – Optic
B. CN III – Oculomotor
C. CN V – Trigeminal
D. CN VIII – Vestibulocochlear
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Photophobia and blurry vision with normal acuity suggest extracocular
muscle or iris involvement (CN III). CN II (A) is already tested by acuity; CN V (C) would
present with facial sensory loss; CN VIII (D) relates to hearing/balance, not light
sensitivity.
Question 6
| ACTUAL FINAL EXAM | Questions & Verified Answers |
Latest Update – Rasmussen College
Question 1
A 68-year-old woman reports “feeling dizzy when I get out of bed.” Which focused
health-history question best clarifies the symptom onset?
A. “When exactly does the dizziness begin and how long does it last?”
B. “Do you have a history of anxiety?”
C. “Have you taken any new antibiotics?”
D. “Does anyone in your family have vertigo?”
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A precise description of timing, duration, and positional triggers (A)
distinguishes orthostatic hypotension, BPPV, or vestibular disorders. Anxiety history (B)
is secondary; antibiotics (C) are not first-line triggers for bedside dizziness; family
history (D) is epidemiologically useful but does not clarify the immediate symptom
pattern.
,Question 2
During inspection of the fingernails, the nurse notes a convex curve with loss of normal
160° angle. Which document entry is most accurate?
A. Early clubbing noted
B. Paronychia present
C. Beau lines identified
D. Splinter hemorrhages observed
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A convex nail and loss of the normal Lovibond angle are early signs of
clubbing, often associated with chronic hypoxia. Paronychia (B) is infection of the nail
fold; Beau lines (C) are transverse depressions indicating temporary growth arrest;
splinter hemorrhages (D) are linear streaks associated with infective endocarditis or
trauma.
Question 3
A patient’s radial pulse is irregularly irregular at 88 bpm. Which action should the nurse
take FIRST?
A. Auscultate an apical pulse for one full minute
,B. Reassess the radial pulse in 30 minutes
C. Obtain a 12-lead ECG immediately
D. Document the finding as sinus arrhythmia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An irregularly irregular radial pulse suggests atrial fibrillation; auscultating the
apical pulse for a full minute (A) confirms rate and rhythm and detects pulse deficits.
Reassessment (B) delays evaluation; ECG (C) is appropriate but not the FIRST bedside
step; sinus arrhythmia (D) is regularly irregular with respiration and is not irregularly
irregular.
Question 4
When assessing a patient’s lung sounds, the nurse hears loud, high-pitched crowing
sounds over the trachea during inspiration and expiration. This is BEST documented as:
A. Stridor
B. Wheezes
C. Crackles
D. Bronchophony
Correct Answer: A
, Rationale: Loud, high-pitched crowing over the trachea is stridor, indicating upper-airway
obstruction. Wheezes (B) are musical and heard over bronchi; crackles (D) are fine,
popping sounds of alveolar opening; bronchophony (D) is a spoken-word test for
consolidation.
Question 5
A 22-year-old man describes a 3-day history of “blurry vision” and “pain when I look at
bright lights.” Visual acuity is 20/20 OU. Which cranial nerve should the nurse assess
NEXT?
A. CN II – Optic
B. CN III – Oculomotor
C. CN V – Trigeminal
D. CN VIII – Vestibulocochlear
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Photophobia and blurry vision with normal acuity suggest extracocular
muscle or iris involvement (CN III). CN II (A) is already tested by acuity; CN V (C) would
present with facial sensory loss; CN VIII (D) relates to hearing/balance, not light
sensitivity.
Question 6
