DAVIS ADVANTAGE FOR FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING
CARE 4TH EDITION 2026 FULL STUDY GUIDE | ALL
CHAPTER LEARNING THEMES || NEW VERSION
Theme 1: The Nurse’s Role & The Health Care Environment
1. Q: What is the primary goal of the nursing process?
A: To provide a systematic, patient-centered framework for delivering holistic and
effective nursing care.
2. Q: Which nursing role involves protecting patients' legal and human rights?
A: The role of Advocate.
3. Q: Describe the difference between licensure (like RN) and certification (like CCRN).
A: Licensure is a legal requirement to practice, granted by a state board. Certification is
a voluntary credential demonstrating expertise in a specialty, granted by a professional
organization.
4. Q: What is the purpose of the Nurse Practice Act?
A: To define the scope of nursing practice and establish standards for licensure within a
specific state.
5. Q: In the SBAR communication tool, what does the "R" stand for?
A: Recommendation (or Request).
Theme 2: Critical Thinking & Clinical Judgment
6. Q: What is the difference between a medical diagnosis and a nursing diagnosis?
A: A medical diagnosis identifies a disease or pathology. A nursing diagnosis identifies
a human response to actual or potential health problems/life processes.
7. Q: Which phase of the nursing process involves collecting, organizing, and validating
data?
A: Assessment.
8. Q: "Patient will demonstrate proper crutch-walking technique by discharge." This is an
example of what component of a SMART outcome?
A: Measurable.
, 9. Q: What is the purpose of reflective practice in nursing?
A: To consciously think about experiences to learn from them, improve clinical
reasoning, and enhance future practice.
10. Q: What does the "evaluate" step of the nursing process determine?
A: Whether the patient outcomes were met and the effectiveness of the nursing
interventions.
Theme 3: Health, Wellness, & Cultural Care
11. Q: Define health according to the World Health Organization (WHO).
A: A state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being, not merely the absence
of disease or infirmity.
12. Q: Which model views health on a dynamic continuum from premature death to
optimal wellness?
A: The Health-Illness Continuum.
13. Q: What is the key principle of culturally competent care?
A: To provide care that respects and integrates the patient's cultural beliefs, values, and
practices.
14. Q: A patient refuses a blood transfusion due to religious beliefs. The nurse respects
this decision. This supports which ethical principle?
A: Autonomy (self-determination).
15. Q: What is health disparity?
A: A particular type of health difference closely linked with social, economic, and/or
environmental disadvantage.
Theme 4: Safety & Infection Control
16. Q: What is the single most important practice to prevent the spread of infection?
A: Hand hygiene.
17. Q: When should alcohol-based hand rub NOT be used?
A: When hands are visibly soiled or after caring for a patient with C. difficile (soap and
water are preferred for C. diff).
18. Q: What are the three essential elements of the "Chain of Infection"?
A: Infectious Agent, Reservoir, Portal of Exit, Mode of Transmission, Portal of Entry,
Susceptible Host. (Three examples: Agent, Transmission, Host).
, 19. Q: For which type of transmission-based precaution must a nurse wear an N95
respirator?
A: Airborne Precautions (e.g., for Tuberculosis, Measles).
20. Q: What is a "never event" in patient safety?
A: A serious, preventable adverse event that should never occur in a healthcare setting
(e.g., wrong-site surgery, pressure injury).
Theme 5: Developmental Considerations Across the Lifespan
21. Q: According to Erikson, what is the primary psychosocial task of the adolescent?
A: Identity vs. Role Confusion.
22. Q: Why are infants at higher risk for dehydration?
A: They have a higher proportion of body water, higher metabolic rate, and immature
kidneys.
23. Q: A toddler screaming "No!" is demonstrating a normal developmental milestone.
This is best understood through which theorist?
A: Erikson's Autonomy vs. Shame & Doubt stage.
24. Q: What is a key safety consideration when caring for an older adult?
A: Increased risk for falls due to factors like decreased balance, polypharmacy, and
sensory deficits.
25. Q: Which Piagetian stage is characterized by abstract and logical thought?
A: Formal Operational stage (adolescence and adulthood).
Theme 6: Assessment & Vital Signs
26. Q: What is the normal range for oral temperature in an adult?
A: Approximately 97.7°F - 99.5°F (36.5°C - 37.5°C).
27. Q: A blood pressure of 138/88 mmHg is classified as what according to most recent
guidelines?
A: Stage 1 Hypertension.
28. Q: What is pulse oximetry (SpO2) measuring?
A: The percentage of hemoglobin saturated with oxygen in arterial blood.
29. Q: Where is the point of maximal impulse (PMI) typically located?
A: At the 5th intercostal space, midclavicular line (apex of the heart).
, 30. Q: What is orthostatic (postural) hypotension?
A: A significant drop in systolic (≥20 mm Hg) or diastolic (≥10 mm Hg) pressure when
moving from lying to sitting/standing.
Theme 7: Communication & Therapeutic Relationships
31. Q: What is the primary purpose of therapeutic communication?
A: To focus on the patient and foster healing, problem-solving, and understanding.
32. Q: "You seem worried today." This is an example of what therapeutic communication
technique?
A: Making an observation.
33. Q: What is a non-therapeutic barrier to communication?
A: Giving false reassurance (e.g., "Don't worry, everything will be fine.").
34. Q: Which part of the communication process involves the receiver's response?
A: Feedback.
35. Q: What is the purpose of active listening?
A: To fully concentrate, understand, respond, and then remember what the patient is
saying, both verbally and non-verbally.
Theme 8: Documentation & Informatics
36. Q: What does the acronym PIE stand for in charting?
A: Problem, Intervention, Evaluation.
37. Q: When documenting, what does the principle "if it wasn't documented, it wasn't
done" emphasize?
A: The legal importance of accurate and complete documentation.
38. Q: What is an example of objective data?
A: Vital signs, lab results, observable behaviors (e.g., "BP 150/90, patient crying").
39. Q: What is the primary benefit of an Electronic Health Record (EHR)?
A: To improve care coordination, safety, and access to patient information across
providers and settings.
40. Q: A nurse writes: "Patient's abdominal incision is 5 cm long, edges well-
approximated, no redness or drainage." This is an example of what type of note?
A: A focused assessment or progress note.
Theme 9: Hygiene & Personal Care
CARE 4TH EDITION 2026 FULL STUDY GUIDE | ALL
CHAPTER LEARNING THEMES || NEW VERSION
Theme 1: The Nurse’s Role & The Health Care Environment
1. Q: What is the primary goal of the nursing process?
A: To provide a systematic, patient-centered framework for delivering holistic and
effective nursing care.
2. Q: Which nursing role involves protecting patients' legal and human rights?
A: The role of Advocate.
3. Q: Describe the difference between licensure (like RN) and certification (like CCRN).
A: Licensure is a legal requirement to practice, granted by a state board. Certification is
a voluntary credential demonstrating expertise in a specialty, granted by a professional
organization.
4. Q: What is the purpose of the Nurse Practice Act?
A: To define the scope of nursing practice and establish standards for licensure within a
specific state.
5. Q: In the SBAR communication tool, what does the "R" stand for?
A: Recommendation (or Request).
Theme 2: Critical Thinking & Clinical Judgment
6. Q: What is the difference between a medical diagnosis and a nursing diagnosis?
A: A medical diagnosis identifies a disease or pathology. A nursing diagnosis identifies
a human response to actual or potential health problems/life processes.
7. Q: Which phase of the nursing process involves collecting, organizing, and validating
data?
A: Assessment.
8. Q: "Patient will demonstrate proper crutch-walking technique by discharge." This is an
example of what component of a SMART outcome?
A: Measurable.
, 9. Q: What is the purpose of reflective practice in nursing?
A: To consciously think about experiences to learn from them, improve clinical
reasoning, and enhance future practice.
10. Q: What does the "evaluate" step of the nursing process determine?
A: Whether the patient outcomes were met and the effectiveness of the nursing
interventions.
Theme 3: Health, Wellness, & Cultural Care
11. Q: Define health according to the World Health Organization (WHO).
A: A state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being, not merely the absence
of disease or infirmity.
12. Q: Which model views health on a dynamic continuum from premature death to
optimal wellness?
A: The Health-Illness Continuum.
13. Q: What is the key principle of culturally competent care?
A: To provide care that respects and integrates the patient's cultural beliefs, values, and
practices.
14. Q: A patient refuses a blood transfusion due to religious beliefs. The nurse respects
this decision. This supports which ethical principle?
A: Autonomy (self-determination).
15. Q: What is health disparity?
A: A particular type of health difference closely linked with social, economic, and/or
environmental disadvantage.
Theme 4: Safety & Infection Control
16. Q: What is the single most important practice to prevent the spread of infection?
A: Hand hygiene.
17. Q: When should alcohol-based hand rub NOT be used?
A: When hands are visibly soiled or after caring for a patient with C. difficile (soap and
water are preferred for C. diff).
18. Q: What are the three essential elements of the "Chain of Infection"?
A: Infectious Agent, Reservoir, Portal of Exit, Mode of Transmission, Portal of Entry,
Susceptible Host. (Three examples: Agent, Transmission, Host).
, 19. Q: For which type of transmission-based precaution must a nurse wear an N95
respirator?
A: Airborne Precautions (e.g., for Tuberculosis, Measles).
20. Q: What is a "never event" in patient safety?
A: A serious, preventable adverse event that should never occur in a healthcare setting
(e.g., wrong-site surgery, pressure injury).
Theme 5: Developmental Considerations Across the Lifespan
21. Q: According to Erikson, what is the primary psychosocial task of the adolescent?
A: Identity vs. Role Confusion.
22. Q: Why are infants at higher risk for dehydration?
A: They have a higher proportion of body water, higher metabolic rate, and immature
kidneys.
23. Q: A toddler screaming "No!" is demonstrating a normal developmental milestone.
This is best understood through which theorist?
A: Erikson's Autonomy vs. Shame & Doubt stage.
24. Q: What is a key safety consideration when caring for an older adult?
A: Increased risk for falls due to factors like decreased balance, polypharmacy, and
sensory deficits.
25. Q: Which Piagetian stage is characterized by abstract and logical thought?
A: Formal Operational stage (adolescence and adulthood).
Theme 6: Assessment & Vital Signs
26. Q: What is the normal range for oral temperature in an adult?
A: Approximately 97.7°F - 99.5°F (36.5°C - 37.5°C).
27. Q: A blood pressure of 138/88 mmHg is classified as what according to most recent
guidelines?
A: Stage 1 Hypertension.
28. Q: What is pulse oximetry (SpO2) measuring?
A: The percentage of hemoglobin saturated with oxygen in arterial blood.
29. Q: Where is the point of maximal impulse (PMI) typically located?
A: At the 5th intercostal space, midclavicular line (apex of the heart).
, 30. Q: What is orthostatic (postural) hypotension?
A: A significant drop in systolic (≥20 mm Hg) or diastolic (≥10 mm Hg) pressure when
moving from lying to sitting/standing.
Theme 7: Communication & Therapeutic Relationships
31. Q: What is the primary purpose of therapeutic communication?
A: To focus on the patient and foster healing, problem-solving, and understanding.
32. Q: "You seem worried today." This is an example of what therapeutic communication
technique?
A: Making an observation.
33. Q: What is a non-therapeutic barrier to communication?
A: Giving false reassurance (e.g., "Don't worry, everything will be fine.").
34. Q: Which part of the communication process involves the receiver's response?
A: Feedback.
35. Q: What is the purpose of active listening?
A: To fully concentrate, understand, respond, and then remember what the patient is
saying, both verbally and non-verbally.
Theme 8: Documentation & Informatics
36. Q: What does the acronym PIE stand for in charting?
A: Problem, Intervention, Evaluation.
37. Q: When documenting, what does the principle "if it wasn't documented, it wasn't
done" emphasize?
A: The legal importance of accurate and complete documentation.
38. Q: What is an example of objective data?
A: Vital signs, lab results, observable behaviors (e.g., "BP 150/90, patient crying").
39. Q: What is the primary benefit of an Electronic Health Record (EHR)?
A: To improve care coordination, safety, and access to patient information across
providers and settings.
40. Q: A nurse writes: "Patient's abdominal incision is 5 cm long, edges well-
approximated, no redness or drainage." This is an example of what type of note?
A: A focused assessment or progress note.
Theme 9: Hygiene & Personal Care
