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Focus on Adult Health Exam | Verified Questions & Correct Detailed Answers | Latest A+ Grade | 2024/2025 Edition

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The Focus on Adult Health Exam – 2024/2025 Edition study guides are available as verified, A+ graded resources. They provide complete exam-style questions with correct answers and rationales, focusing on adult health nursing, patient care, disease management, and clinical decision-making.

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Focus on Adult Health Exam questions and
answers 2024\2025 A+ Grade


A nurse is monitoring a client who is taking spironolactone for the treatment of hypertension. Which
findings denote adverse effects of the medication? Select all that apply.
- correct answer Tall T waves

Prolonged PR interval

Hyperactive bowel sounds

Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Potassium-sparing diuretics can cause
hyperkalemia. Cardiovascular manifestations of hyperkalemia include tall T waves, widened QRS
complexes, prolonged PR intervals, and flat P waves. Other cardiovascular manifestations include an
irregular heart rate, decreased blood pressure, and ectopic heartbeats. Muscle twitches occur in
hyperkalemia. Hyperactive bowel sounds and diarrhea also occur in hyperkalemia. Constipation,
hyporeflexia, and shallow respirations are signs of hypokalemia.



A nurse is providing dietary instructions to a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
who is experiencing a loss of appetite and complains of feeling "too full to eat." What does the nurse
encourage the client to do? Select all that apply.
- correct answer Avoid drinking fluids before and during meals

Select foods that are easy to chew and are not gas forming

Rationale: COPD is a progressive and irreversible condition characterized by diminished inspiratory and
expiratory capacity of the lungs. Instruct the client who complains of feeling too full to eat, to avoid
drinking fluids before and during the meal. Dry foods such as crackers stimulate coughing; foods such as
milk and chocolate may increase the thickness of saliva and secretions. Cheese is constipating and
should also be avoided by the client. The nurse should also teach the client about foods that are easy to
chew and do not encourage the formation of gas; for this reason, broccoli, which is a gas-forming food,
should be avoided.

,A tuberculin skin test (TST) is administered to a client with a diagnosis of HIV infection. Forty-eight hours
after administration, the nurse checks the test site (see image).
- correct answer Positive

Rationale: The tuberculin, or TST, test is a reliable determinant of tuberculosis (TB) infection. A reaction
measuring 5 mm or more in diameter is considered positive in a client with HIV infection. A reaction
measuring 10 mm or more in diameter is considered positive in a non-immunosuppressed client. In this
instance, the area of induration measures 9 mm, indicating a positive reaction. A positive reaction does
not mean that active disease is present, but it does indicate exposure to TB or the presence of inactive
(dormant) disease.



A nurse is interpreting a central venous pressure (CVP) reading from a client in whom right ventricular
failure has been diagnosed. From this diagnosis, the nurse would expect that the most likely result is a
pressure of
- correct answer 14 cm H2O

Rationale: CVP measurements are used to monitor blood volume and the adequacy of venous return to
the heart. The CVP measures pressures from the right atrium or central veins. The normal CVP is 7 to 12
cm H2O. An increased CVP reading may indicate right ventricular failure. A low CVP reading may indicate
hypovolemia. A reading of 4 cm H2O is low. Readings of 8 and 11 cm H2O are normal. A reading of 14
cm H2O is increased.



A nurse is caring for a client who has just undergone thyroidectomy. Which technique is the best way for
the nurse to assess the surgical site for bleeding?
- correct answer Checking for moisture on the back of the dressing over the client's neck and shoulders

Rationale: Thyroid surgery may be complicated by hemorrhage, respiratory distress, parathyroid gland
injury (resulting in hypocalcemia and tetany), damage to the laryngeal nerves, and thyroid storm.
Hemorrhage is most likely during the 24 hours after surgery. If the client is bleeding after surgery,
gravity will cause the blood to seep down the sides of the dressing and drain onto the underlying bed
linens even as the top of the dressing remains clean and dry. Asking the client whether the dressing feels
wet and replacing the dry sterile dressing every 2 hours are not the best actions. Replacing the dressing
frequently when it is not warranted could also increase the risk of infection.



A client who sustained a major burn injury is beginning to take an oral diet again. Which between-meal
menu selections meet the client's needs for wound healing and tissue repair? Select all that apply.
- correct answer Whole-milk shake and granola

Baked potato topped with cheese

Cheese and whole-wheat crackers

Rationale: To facilitate healing and meet continued high metabolic needs, the client with a major burn
should eat a diet high in calories, protein, and carbohydrates. This type of diet also keeps the client in

, positive nitrogen balance. Foods such as milkshakes, granola, cheese, and whole-wheat products are
acceptable choices. Though fresh fruits and vegetables and skim milk are high in nutrients, higher-
calorie foods, including versions of dairy products prepared with whole milk, are preferable in this
situation.



A client is found to have hypoparathyroidism. Which nutritional supplement does the nurse, teaching
the client about measures to manage the disorder, tell the client to take on a daily basis?
- correct answer Calcium carbonate with vitamin D

Rationale: Hypoparathyroidism is an endocrine disorder in which parathyroid function is decreased. The
client with hypoparathyroidism is likely to have low calcium and high phosphate levels and should
consume a diet high in calcium but low in phosphorus. Additionally, the generally used treatment is
calcium supplementation (either as calcium carbonate or calcium citrate) coupled with vitamin D
supplementation. Vitamin C supplementation is not a treatment measure for this disorder. Beta-
carotene is incorrect, because a client with hypoparathyroidism typically has an increased phosphorus
level



A nurse participating in a free health screening at the local mall obtains a random blood glucose level of
190 mg/dL (10.6 mmol/L) and a total cholesterol level of 210 mg/dL (5.4 mmol/L) in an otherwise
healthy client. What should the nurse tell the client to do next?
- correct answer Call his health care provider to have these values rechecked as soon as possible

Rationale: Adult diabetes mellitus may be diagnosed on the basis of symptoms (e.g., polydipsia,
polyuria, polyphagia) or laboratory values. An abnormal glucose tolerance test, a random plasma
glucose level greater than 200 mg/dL (11.1 mmol/L), and a fasting plasma glucose level greater than 140
mg/dL (7.8 mmol/L) on two separate occasions are all diagnostic of diabetes mellitus. The total
cholesterol should be less than 200 mg/dL (5.2 mmol/L). Confirmation of this client's results is needed to
ensure appropriate diagnosis and therapy.



Levothyroxine sodium is prescribed for a client with hypothyroidism, and the nurse provides information
to the client about the medication. Which occurrences does the nurse tell the client to report to the
health care provider? Select all that apply.
- correct answer Chest pain

Palpitations

Rapid heart rate

Rationale: The client taking levothyroxine sodium may have manifestations of hypothyroidism if the
dosage is inadequate or may experience manifestations of hyperthyroidism if the dosage is too high.
Thyroid preparations increase metabolic rate, oxygen demands, and demands on the heart, which may
result in angina and cardiac dysrhythmias. The client should be instructed to report chest pain,

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