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NSG 456 FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS LATEST UPDTAE 2026/2027 | 100% CORRECT | GRADED A+ | GUARANTEED PASS!

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NSG 456 FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS LATEST UPDTAE 2026/2027 | 100% CORRECT | GRADED A+ | GUARANTEED PASS! A nurse is getting a client ready to go to dialysis after they finish their morning. Which of the following drugs should the nurse store before dialysis? (Select all that apply.) A. Insulin lispro B. Propranolol C. nitroglycerin patch D. Demorol - Answer B: Propranolol C. nitroglycerin patch D. Demorol Hold propranolol (antihypertensive) and nitroglycerin (vasodilator) before to dialysis because the customer will require a systolic blood pressure of 90-100 to undergo dialysis. Hold demorol since it causes seizures. A nurse is treating a client who is complaining of unrelieved pain in his right lower extremities. Upon examination, the nurse observes no pedal pulse and the extremity is chilly to the touch. The nurse's primary action is to A. Immediately call the provider. B. Place the client in reverse Trendelenburg. C. Put the person on an NPO diet. D. ANSWER D. Begin IV fluid resuscitation This client shows indications of rhabdomyolysis. The primary therapy goal for a patient with rhabdomyolysis is fluid resuscitation to raise or restore intravascular volume, increase glomerular filtration rate, and dilute myoglobin and other renal tubular toxins. The nurse is training a client who has been diagnosed with stage IV chronic kidney disease. The nurse knows the education was effective when the client makes the following meal choices: A. Double cheeseburger with french fries. B. Grilled chicken breast and lentil salad C. A two-egg omelet on peanut butter toast. D. Answer D: Pasta with pesto and a side salad. The liver produces protein, which is then converted into urea and discharged by the kidneys. A customer with stage IV CKD will have a lower GFR, which means less urea will be discharged in the urine. As a result, reduced protein is required to keep uremic waste products low. A nurse is treating a client who is in the oliguric stage of an acute kidney injury. What ABG findings should the nurse expect? A. pH 7.22, pCO2 55, and HCO3 25. B. pH 7.51, pCO2 29; HCO3 20. C. pH 7. 45, pCO2 39, HCO3 24. D. pH 7.29, pCO2 37, HCO3 19. ANSWER D. pH 7.29, pCO2 37, and HCO3 19 This ABG demonstrates metabolic acidosis. Clients in the oliguric phase of an AKI will have a decreased release of hydrogen ions, increasing blood acidity. The lower GFR causes less hydrogen ion excretion. Clients may compensate with Kussmal's respirations (quick, rapid respirations), which attempt to eliminate acid by exhaling CO2, an acid. 1. ______________ is only filtered from the bloodstream by the glomerulus and is not reabsorbed back into the bloodstream, but rather expelled through the urine. A. Urea B: Creatinine C) Potassium D. Magnesium - Answer: B. Creatinine. Creatinine, a waste product of muscle breakdown, is taken from the bloodstream by the glomerulus of the nephron. It is the only chemical that is filtered out of the blood without being reabsorbed. It is eliminated through the urine. This is why a creatinine clearance test is used to assess renal function and calculate the glomerular filtration rate. A nurse is treating a client who is exceedingly irritable and complains of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. After reviewing the test results, the nurse assesses the client's serum potassium level to be 6.2mg/dL. What medication should the nurse expect the provider to order? A. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate B. Magnesium citrate C. Potassium chloride D. ANSWER A: chlorpropamide. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate A patient with acute renal damage has a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of 40 mL/min. Which of the following signs and symptoms may this patient exhibit? Select all that apply. A. Hypervolemia B. Hypokalemia. C. Increased BUN levels D. Decreased creatinine level - ANSWER A. Hypervolemia C. Increased BUN levels The glomerular filtration rate measures how successfully the glomerulus filters the blood. A normal GFR is usually 90 mL/min or greater. A GFR of 40 mL/min suggests that the kidney's ability to filter blood has reduced. As a result, the kidneys will be unable to eliminate waste and extra water from the blood, causing hypervolemia and an elevated BUN level in this patient. The patient will have HYPERkalemia (not hypokalemia) because the kidneys are unable to eliminate potassium from the bloodstream. Furthermore, because the kidneys are unable to clear excessive waste products such as creatinine, the creatinine level will rise rather than fall.

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NSG 456
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NSG 456 FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS LATEST
UPDTAE 2026/2027 | 100% CORRECT | GRADED A+ |
GUARANTEED PASS!

A nurse is getting a client ready to go to dialysis after they finish their morning.
Which of the following drugs should the nurse store before dialysis? (Select all that
apply.) A. Insulin lispro
B. Propranolol

C. nitroglycerin patch

D. Demorol - Answer B: Propranolol

C. nitroglycerin patch

D. Demorol


Hold propranolol (antihypertensive) and nitroglycerin (vasodilator) before to
dialysis because the customer will require a systolic blood pressure of 90-100 to
undergo dialysis.

Hold demorol since it causes seizures.


A nurse is treating a client who is complaining of unrelieved pain in his right lower
extremities. Upon examination, the nurse observes no pedal pulse and the extremity
is chilly to the touch. The nurse's primary action is to

A. Immediately call the provider.

B. Place the client in reverse Trendelenburg.

C. Put the person on an NPO diet.

D. ANSWER D. Begin IV fluid resuscitation

,This client shows indications of rhabdomyolysis. The primary therapy goal for a
patient with rhabdomyolysis is fluid resuscitation to raise or restore intravascular
volume, increase glomerular filtration rate, and dilute myoglobin and other renal
tubular toxins.



The nurse is training a client who has been diagnosed with stage IV chronic kidney
disease. The nurse knows the education was effective when the client makes the
following meal choices:

A. Double cheeseburger with french fries.

B. Grilled chicken breast and lentil salad

C. A two-egg omelet on peanut butter toast.

D. Answer D: Pasta with pesto and a side salad.

The liver produces protein, which is then converted into urea and discharged by the
kidneys. A customer with stage IV CKD will have a lower GFR, which means less
urea will be discharged in the urine. As a result, reduced protein is required to keep
uremic waste products low.

A nurse is treating a client who is in the oliguric stage of an acute kidney injury.
What ABG findings should the nurse expect?

A. pH 7.22, pCO2 55, and HCO3 25.

B. pH 7.51, pCO2 29; HCO3 20.

C. pH 7. 45, pCO2 39, HCO3 24.

D. pH 7.29, pCO2 37, HCO3 19. ANSWER D. pH 7.29, pCO2 37, and HCO3 19

This ABG demonstrates metabolic acidosis. Clients in the oliguric phase of an AKI
will have a decreased release of hydrogen ions, increasing blood acidity. The lower
GFR causes less hydrogen ion excretion. Clients may compensate with Kussmal's

,respirations (quick, rapid respirations), which attempt to eliminate acid by exhaling
CO2, an acid.


1. ______________ is only filtered from the bloodstream by the glomerulus and is
not reabsorbed back into the bloodstream, but rather expelled through the urine.

A. Urea

B: Creatinine

C) Potassium

D. Magnesium - Answer: B. Creatinine.

Creatinine, a waste product of muscle breakdown, is taken from the bloodstream by
the glomerulus of the nephron. It is the only chemical that is filtered out of the
blood without being reabsorbed. It is eliminated through the urine. This is why a
creatinine clearance test is used to assess renal function and calculate the
glomerular filtration rate.


A nurse is treating a client who is exceedingly irritable and complains of nausea,
vomiting, and diarrhea. After reviewing the test results, the nurse assesses the
client's serum potassium level to be 6.2mg/dL. What medication should the nurse
expect the provider to order?

A. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate

B. Magnesium citrate

C. Potassium chloride

D. ANSWER A: chlorpropamide. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate

, A patient with acute renal damage has a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of 40
mL/min. Which of the following signs and symptoms may this patient exhibit?
Select all that apply.

A. Hypervolemia

B. Hypokalemia.

C. Increased BUN levels

D. Decreased creatinine level - ANSWER A. Hypervolemia
C. Increased BUN levels

The glomerular filtration rate measures how successfully the glomerulus filters the
blood. A normal GFR is usually 90 mL/min or greater. A GFR of 40 mL/min
suggests that the kidney's ability to filter blood has reduced. As a result, the kidneys
will be unable to eliminate waste and extra water from the blood, causing
hypervolemia and an elevated BUN level in this patient. The patient will have
HYPERkalemia (not hypokalemia) because the kidneys are unable to eliminate
potassium from the bloodstream. Furthermore, because the kidneys are unable to
clear excessive waste products such as creatinine, the creatinine level will rise
rather than fall.


You are evaluating morning lab results for a female patient who is recovering from
a cardiac infarction. Which of the following lab values requires you to contact your
physician?

A. Potassium level: 4.2 mEq/L.

B. Creatinine clearance: 35 mL/min.

C. BUN: 20 mg/dL.

D. Blood pH 7.40 - ANSWER B: Creatinine clearance 35 mL/min

A normal creatinine clearance level for a female is 85-125 mL/min (95-140 mL/min
for men). A creatinine clearance level represents the amount of creatinine-free

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