NASM STRETCHING AND FLEXIBILITY EXAM
2025 | ALL 100 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS | ALREADY GRADED A+ | LATEST
VERSION (JUST RELEASED)
Introduction
This 2025 NASM Stretching & Flexibility Specialist exam simulation is designed for
mastery-level preparation.
The 100 original items evaluate seven core domains:
1. Muscle physiology & biomechanics
2. Flexibility assessment techniques
3. Static, dynamic, and PNF stretching applications
4. Evidence-based program design & progression
5. Special-population modifications
6. Recovery & injury-prevention strategies
7. Behavior-change tactics for client adherence
All content aligns with current NASM certification standards and contemporary
research (2025).
Question 1
A new client demonstrates 15° of hip extension during the Thomas test. Which structure
is MOST likely shortened?
A. Iliopsoas
B. Gluteus maximus
C. Hamstrings
D. Tensor fasciae latae
Answer: A. Iliopsoas
Solution: The Thomas test isolates the hip flexors; limitation in hip extension with the
knee flexed implicates iliopsoas. Gluteus maximus (B) is a hip extensor, hamstrings (C)
are tested with the knee extended, and TFL (D) is assessed with the Ober test.
Question 2
pg. 1
,During active knee extension, the hamstrings produce 80 % of maximal voluntary
contraction. Which proprioceptor MOST rapidly inhibits further lengthening?
A. Muscle spindle primary ending
B. Golgi tendon organ
C. Pacinian corpuscle
D. Ruffini ending
Answer: B. Golgi tendon organ
Solution: GTOs sense tension; high hamstring tension triggers autogenic inhibition,
relaxing the muscle. Spindles (A) facilitate contraction, while Pacinian (C) and Ruffini
(D) are mechanoreceptors with slower roles.
Question 3
A 68-year-old female with osteoporosis needs hip-flexor stretching. Which modality is
SAFEST for her lumbar spine?
A. Prone ballistic stretching
B. Standing dynamic lunge
C. Supine static stretch with pelvic tilt
D. PNF contract–relax in seated flexion
Answer: C. Supine static stretch with pelvic tilt
Solution: Supine position reduces axial loading on osteoporotic vertebrae; static stretch
minimizes fall risk. Ballistic (A) and dynamic (B) increase shear forces, while seated PNF
(D) flexes the spine—contraindicated.
Question 4
A client’s sit-and-reach score improves 6 cm after 4 weeks but plateaus. Which variable
should be manipulated FIRST for continued adaptation?
A. Stretch velocity
B. Stretch duration per bout
C. Ambient temperature
D. Hydration status
Answer: B. Stretch duration per bout
Solution: Progressive overload for flexibility is achieved by increasing time under
stretch (30→60 s). Velocity (A) is irrelevant for static flexibility, and temp/hydration (C,
D) are supportive, not primary stimuli.
Question 5
pg. 2
,During a passive straight-leg raise, the client reports posterior thigh pain at 50°. Which
assessment should follow?
A. Slump test
B. Apley scratch test
C. Ely test
D. Davies test
Answer: A. Slump test
Solution: Pain < 70° suggests neural tension; the slump test differentiates hamstring
tightness from sciatic nerve adherence. Apley (B) assesses shoulder, Ely (C) rectus
femoris, Davies (D) scapular stability.
Question 6
Which myofascial property allows gradual permanent elongation under sustained
tensile load?
A. Viscoelasticity
B. Elasticity
C. Plasticity
D. Contractility
Answer: C. Plasticity
Solution: Plastic deformation denotes permanent length change once load is removed.
Viscoelasticity (A) is time-dependent but may rebound; elasticity (B) returns to original
length; contractility (D) is active shortening.
Question 7
A basketball player must stretch between quarters. Which sequence BEST maintains
power output?
A. 3×30 s static hip flexor stretches
B. 2×10 s dynamic leg swings
C. 1×60 s PNF hamstring stretch
D. 2×20 s ballistic quadriceps stretches
Answer: B. 2×10 s dynamic leg swings
Solution: Short dynamic stretches transiently increase compliance without reducing
neural drive or stretch-shortening cycle performance. Static (A, C) and ballistic (D)
protocols acutely decrease vertical-jump height.
Question 8
pg. 3
, Using the NASM Corrective Exercise Continuum, which step follows inhibitory
techniques for tight calves?
A. Lengthening
B. Activation
C. Integration
D. Loading
Answer: A. Lengthening
Solution: NASM order: inhibit → lengthen → activate → integrate. Activation (B) comes
after lengthening; integration (C) is last; loading (D) is strength, not flexibility.
Question 9
A pregnant client in her second trimester complains of lumbar lordosis. Which stretch is
MOST appropriate?
A. Prone cobra
B. Quadruped cat-camel
C. Supine hamstring stretch with strap
D. Seated butterfly stretch
Answer: C. Supine hamstring stretch with strap
Solution: Supine with strap avoids prone pressure on fetus and reduces posterior pelvic
tilt to counter lordosis. Cobra (A) is prone contraindicated; cat-camel (B) is mobility, not
sustained stretch; butterfly (D) targets adductors.
Question 10
Which neurotransmitter is released at the Ia afferent–alpha motor neuron synapse to
cause reflex contraction?
A. Dopamine
B. Acetylcholine
C. Glutamate
D. GABA
Answer: C. Glutamate
Solution: Ia afferents use excitatory glutamate. Acetylcholine (B) is at neuromuscular
junction; dopamine (A) is CNS reward; GABA (D) is inhibitory.
Question 11
A client has limited shoulder flexion at 140°. Which structure is LEAST likely to be
shortened?
A. Pectoralis minor
pg. 4
2025 | ALL 100 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS | ALREADY GRADED A+ | LATEST
VERSION (JUST RELEASED)
Introduction
This 2025 NASM Stretching & Flexibility Specialist exam simulation is designed for
mastery-level preparation.
The 100 original items evaluate seven core domains:
1. Muscle physiology & biomechanics
2. Flexibility assessment techniques
3. Static, dynamic, and PNF stretching applications
4. Evidence-based program design & progression
5. Special-population modifications
6. Recovery & injury-prevention strategies
7. Behavior-change tactics for client adherence
All content aligns with current NASM certification standards and contemporary
research (2025).
Question 1
A new client demonstrates 15° of hip extension during the Thomas test. Which structure
is MOST likely shortened?
A. Iliopsoas
B. Gluteus maximus
C. Hamstrings
D. Tensor fasciae latae
Answer: A. Iliopsoas
Solution: The Thomas test isolates the hip flexors; limitation in hip extension with the
knee flexed implicates iliopsoas. Gluteus maximus (B) is a hip extensor, hamstrings (C)
are tested with the knee extended, and TFL (D) is assessed with the Ober test.
Question 2
pg. 1
,During active knee extension, the hamstrings produce 80 % of maximal voluntary
contraction. Which proprioceptor MOST rapidly inhibits further lengthening?
A. Muscle spindle primary ending
B. Golgi tendon organ
C. Pacinian corpuscle
D. Ruffini ending
Answer: B. Golgi tendon organ
Solution: GTOs sense tension; high hamstring tension triggers autogenic inhibition,
relaxing the muscle. Spindles (A) facilitate contraction, while Pacinian (C) and Ruffini
(D) are mechanoreceptors with slower roles.
Question 3
A 68-year-old female with osteoporosis needs hip-flexor stretching. Which modality is
SAFEST for her lumbar spine?
A. Prone ballistic stretching
B. Standing dynamic lunge
C. Supine static stretch with pelvic tilt
D. PNF contract–relax in seated flexion
Answer: C. Supine static stretch with pelvic tilt
Solution: Supine position reduces axial loading on osteoporotic vertebrae; static stretch
minimizes fall risk. Ballistic (A) and dynamic (B) increase shear forces, while seated PNF
(D) flexes the spine—contraindicated.
Question 4
A client’s sit-and-reach score improves 6 cm after 4 weeks but plateaus. Which variable
should be manipulated FIRST for continued adaptation?
A. Stretch velocity
B. Stretch duration per bout
C. Ambient temperature
D. Hydration status
Answer: B. Stretch duration per bout
Solution: Progressive overload for flexibility is achieved by increasing time under
stretch (30→60 s). Velocity (A) is irrelevant for static flexibility, and temp/hydration (C,
D) are supportive, not primary stimuli.
Question 5
pg. 2
,During a passive straight-leg raise, the client reports posterior thigh pain at 50°. Which
assessment should follow?
A. Slump test
B. Apley scratch test
C. Ely test
D. Davies test
Answer: A. Slump test
Solution: Pain < 70° suggests neural tension; the slump test differentiates hamstring
tightness from sciatic nerve adherence. Apley (B) assesses shoulder, Ely (C) rectus
femoris, Davies (D) scapular stability.
Question 6
Which myofascial property allows gradual permanent elongation under sustained
tensile load?
A. Viscoelasticity
B. Elasticity
C. Plasticity
D. Contractility
Answer: C. Plasticity
Solution: Plastic deformation denotes permanent length change once load is removed.
Viscoelasticity (A) is time-dependent but may rebound; elasticity (B) returns to original
length; contractility (D) is active shortening.
Question 7
A basketball player must stretch between quarters. Which sequence BEST maintains
power output?
A. 3×30 s static hip flexor stretches
B. 2×10 s dynamic leg swings
C. 1×60 s PNF hamstring stretch
D. 2×20 s ballistic quadriceps stretches
Answer: B. 2×10 s dynamic leg swings
Solution: Short dynamic stretches transiently increase compliance without reducing
neural drive or stretch-shortening cycle performance. Static (A, C) and ballistic (D)
protocols acutely decrease vertical-jump height.
Question 8
pg. 3
, Using the NASM Corrective Exercise Continuum, which step follows inhibitory
techniques for tight calves?
A. Lengthening
B. Activation
C. Integration
D. Loading
Answer: A. Lengthening
Solution: NASM order: inhibit → lengthen → activate → integrate. Activation (B) comes
after lengthening; integration (C) is last; loading (D) is strength, not flexibility.
Question 9
A pregnant client in her second trimester complains of lumbar lordosis. Which stretch is
MOST appropriate?
A. Prone cobra
B. Quadruped cat-camel
C. Supine hamstring stretch with strap
D. Seated butterfly stretch
Answer: C. Supine hamstring stretch with strap
Solution: Supine with strap avoids prone pressure on fetus and reduces posterior pelvic
tilt to counter lordosis. Cobra (A) is prone contraindicated; cat-camel (B) is mobility, not
sustained stretch; butterfly (D) targets adductors.
Question 10
Which neurotransmitter is released at the Ia afferent–alpha motor neuron synapse to
cause reflex contraction?
A. Dopamine
B. Acetylcholine
C. Glutamate
D. GABA
Answer: C. Glutamate
Solution: Ia afferents use excitatory glutamate. Acetylcholine (B) is at neuromuscular
junction; dopamine (A) is CNS reward; GABA (D) is inhibitory.
Question 11
A client has limited shoulder flexion at 140°. Which structure is LEAST likely to be
shortened?
A. Pectoralis minor
pg. 4
