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NR283 Pathophysiology Final Exam 2026/2027 - NCLEX-RN Aligned

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Prepare for your Pathophysiology final exam with this comprehensive NR283 resource. Features verified questions and answers aligned with NCLEX-RN standards for Chamberlain University's 2026/2027 curriculum. Grade A content for guaranteed success.

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NR283 Pathophysiology
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NR283 Pathophysiology

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Uploaded on
November 30, 2025
Number of pages
6
Written in
2025/2026
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Exam (elaborations)
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NR283 Pathophysiology Final Exam 2026/2027 -
NCLEX-RN Aligned

EXAM STRUCTURE

●​ Total Questions: 85
○​ 80 MC (including 12 SATA)
○​ 8 Mechanism Explanation
○​ 6 Recent Research
○​ 4 Genetic/Molecular
●​ Organized by: Body systems → complexity
●​ All rationales: 2026-2027 evidence & nursing implications



DOMAIN A Cellular & Systemic Foundations (20 Q)

1.​ A 26-year-old trauma patient develops progressive hypotension and ↑ serum
lactate. Which cellular process is PRIMARY?​
A. Anaerobic glycolysis & lactic acidosis​
B. Apoptosis via caspase-3 activation​
C. Autophagy induction​
D. Oxidative phosphorylation hyperactivity​
Answer: A Rationale: Shock → hypoperfusion → O₂↓ → anaerobic glycolysis →
lactate↑; monitor lactate q2 h, target <2 mmol/L.
2.​ (SATA) Which laboratory findings indicate APOPTOSIS rather than NECROSIS?
(Select ALL)​
A. ↑ Caspase-3 activity​
B. ↑ LDH in plasma​
C. Intact cell membrane (no leakage)​
D. DNA laddering on gel electrophoresis​
E. ↑ IL-6 cytokine levels​
Answer: A, C, D Rationale: Apoptosis = energy-dependent, membrane intact,
DNA fragmentation in multiples of 180 bp; LDH & IL-6 = necrosis/inflammation
markers.

, 3.​ A diabetic patient’s wound shows impaired neutrophil chemotaxis. Which
metabolic factor is MOST responsible?​
A. Hyperglycemia-induced PKC activation​
B. Increased insulin-like growth factor​
C. Ketone body accumulation​
D. Osmotic diuresis​
Answer: A Rationale: Hyperglycemia → PKC↑ → NADPH oxidase dysfunction →
defective respiratory burst & chemotaxis; nursing: tight glucose control 140-180
mg/dL.

[4-20 continue: anion-gap metabolic acidosis, SIADH vs DI, DIC pathway 2026, genetic
imprinting in Prader-Willi, autophagy in cardiac ischemia…]



DOMAIN B Cardiovascular & Hematologic (15 Q)

21.​ A 55-year-old man (HTN, smoker) has LDL 190 mg/dL, hs-CRP 4.2 mg/L. Which
2026 AHA mechanism explains plaque progression?​
A. LDL oxidation → endothelial dysfunction → macrophage foam cells​
B. HDL reverse transport failure​
C. Vasospasm without plaque change​
D. Calcium deposition only

Answer: A Rationale: Oxidized LDL recruits monocytes → foam cells → fatty streak;
monitor CRP as inflammation marker.

22.​ (SATA) Which compensatory mechanisms occur in LV systolic dysfunction?
(Select ALL)​
A. ↑ sympathetic tone (↑ HR)​
B. ↑ renin-angiotensin-aldosterone activity​
C. ↑ ventricular compliance​
D. ↑ ANP secretion initially​
E. ↑ preload via vasodilation

Answer: A, B, D Rationale: Frank-Starling ↑ preload, RAAS retains Na⁺/H₂O, ANP
released from stretched atria; compliance ↓ (stiffness ↑), vasoconstriction (not dilation).
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