EEG Board Certification Examination
1. Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of the International 10-20
System?
A. To measure patient head circumference for electrode ordering
B. To provide a standardized method for placing scalp electrodes based on anatomical landmarks
C. To determine the correct dosage of anticonvulsant medication
D. To identify the source of 60 Hz artifact in a recording
Correct Answer – B
Rationale – The International 10-20 System is an internationally accepted standard format for
placing electrodes on the scalp, using the nasion, inion, and preauricular points as landmarks to
ensure uniform spacing and anatomical correlation.
2. Which of the following best describes the recommended electrode application method for
an uncooperative patient undergoing Long-Term Monitoring (LTM)?
A. Paste and gauze
B. Needle electrodes
C. Collodion glue with conductive paste and gauze
D. Tape method only
Correct Answer – C
Rationale – Collodion glue with conductive paste and gauze is noted as the most secure method
for uncooperative patients, making it the preferred choice for LTM or ambulatory EEG where
electrode integrity is critical.
,3. Which of the following best describes the correct action to take when a PPR
(Photoparoxysmal Response) is elicited during Photic Stimulation?
A. Immediately stop the EEG recording
B. Repeat the same frequency of photic stimulation to verify the response
C. Administer a rescue medication to the patient
D. Change the High Frequency Filter to 35 Hz
Correct Answer – B
Rationale – When a PPR is recognized, the technologist should repeat the same frequency of
photic stimulation to verify that the epileptiform activity was indeed caused by the stimulation
and not an incidental occurrence.
4. Which of the following best describes the ACNS guideline for electrode impedances
during a routine EEG?
A. They should be as low as possible, ideally 0 Ohms
B. They should be balanced and not over 5 kOhms
C. They are not a relevant factor in digital EEG
D. They should be between 20 and 50 kOhms for optimal recording
Correct Answer – B
Rationale – Per ACNS Guidelines, impedances should not be over 5 kOhms. High and
unbalanced impedances can lead to distortions of the EEG and introduce electrical artifacts like
60 Hz interference.
5. Which of the following best describes the clinical manifestation formerly known as a
"Psychomotor Seizure"?
,A. Generalized Tonic-Clonic Seizure
B. Absence Seizure
C. Complex Partial Seizure of Temporal Lobe origin
D. Myoclonic Seizure
Correct Answer – C
Rationale – Temporal Lobe Seizures were previously called Psychomotor seizures and are now
classified as complex partial seizures.
6. Which of the following best describes the interictal EEG finding most characteristic of
Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome (LGS)?
A. Generalized 3 Hz spike and wave
B. Hypsarrhythmia
C. Slow spike and wave (SSW) complexes at 1.5-2.5 Hz
D. Continuous spike and wave during slow wave sleep
Correct Answer – C
Rationale – A key EEG finding of LGS is the presence of slow spike and wave (SSW)
complexes, which are biphasic or triphasic sharp waves followed by high-voltage slow waves
with a frequency of 1.5 to 2.5 Hz.
7. Which of the following best describes the normal electrical polarity of the cornea?
A. Negative
B. Neutral
C. Positive
D. Variable
, Correct Answer – C
Rationale – The cornea has a positive electrical polarity, while the retina is negative. This dipole
is the basis for detecting eye movements in the EEG.
8. Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of the Wada test?
A. To localize the source of muscle artifact
B. To assess language and memory function in one cerebral hemisphere at a time
C. To measure cerebral blood flow using a radioactive tracer
D. To evaluate for the presence of a brain aneurysm
Correct Answer – B
Rationale – The Wada test (intracarotid sodium amobarbital study) looks at language and
memory on one side of the brain at a time, which is critical for pre-surgical planning in epilepsy
patients.
9. Which of the following best describes the effect of opening the eyes on a posterior
dominant rhythm?
A. It causes an increase in amplitude (Amplification)
B. It causes no change (Stability)
C. It causes a decrease or attenuation (Blocking)
D. It causes a shift to faster frequencies (Acceleration)
Correct Answer – C
Rationale – A normal characteristic of the posterior dominant (alpha) rhythm is that it attenuates
or blocks when the eyes are opened, demonstrating reactivity.
1. Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of the International 10-20
System?
A. To measure patient head circumference for electrode ordering
B. To provide a standardized method for placing scalp electrodes based on anatomical landmarks
C. To determine the correct dosage of anticonvulsant medication
D. To identify the source of 60 Hz artifact in a recording
Correct Answer – B
Rationale – The International 10-20 System is an internationally accepted standard format for
placing electrodes on the scalp, using the nasion, inion, and preauricular points as landmarks to
ensure uniform spacing and anatomical correlation.
2. Which of the following best describes the recommended electrode application method for
an uncooperative patient undergoing Long-Term Monitoring (LTM)?
A. Paste and gauze
B. Needle electrodes
C. Collodion glue with conductive paste and gauze
D. Tape method only
Correct Answer – C
Rationale – Collodion glue with conductive paste and gauze is noted as the most secure method
for uncooperative patients, making it the preferred choice for LTM or ambulatory EEG where
electrode integrity is critical.
,3. Which of the following best describes the correct action to take when a PPR
(Photoparoxysmal Response) is elicited during Photic Stimulation?
A. Immediately stop the EEG recording
B. Repeat the same frequency of photic stimulation to verify the response
C. Administer a rescue medication to the patient
D. Change the High Frequency Filter to 35 Hz
Correct Answer – B
Rationale – When a PPR is recognized, the technologist should repeat the same frequency of
photic stimulation to verify that the epileptiform activity was indeed caused by the stimulation
and not an incidental occurrence.
4. Which of the following best describes the ACNS guideline for electrode impedances
during a routine EEG?
A. They should be as low as possible, ideally 0 Ohms
B. They should be balanced and not over 5 kOhms
C. They are not a relevant factor in digital EEG
D. They should be between 20 and 50 kOhms for optimal recording
Correct Answer – B
Rationale – Per ACNS Guidelines, impedances should not be over 5 kOhms. High and
unbalanced impedances can lead to distortions of the EEG and introduce electrical artifacts like
60 Hz interference.
5. Which of the following best describes the clinical manifestation formerly known as a
"Psychomotor Seizure"?
,A. Generalized Tonic-Clonic Seizure
B. Absence Seizure
C. Complex Partial Seizure of Temporal Lobe origin
D. Myoclonic Seizure
Correct Answer – C
Rationale – Temporal Lobe Seizures were previously called Psychomotor seizures and are now
classified as complex partial seizures.
6. Which of the following best describes the interictal EEG finding most characteristic of
Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome (LGS)?
A. Generalized 3 Hz spike and wave
B. Hypsarrhythmia
C. Slow spike and wave (SSW) complexes at 1.5-2.5 Hz
D. Continuous spike and wave during slow wave sleep
Correct Answer – C
Rationale – A key EEG finding of LGS is the presence of slow spike and wave (SSW)
complexes, which are biphasic or triphasic sharp waves followed by high-voltage slow waves
with a frequency of 1.5 to 2.5 Hz.
7. Which of the following best describes the normal electrical polarity of the cornea?
A. Negative
B. Neutral
C. Positive
D. Variable
, Correct Answer – C
Rationale – The cornea has a positive electrical polarity, while the retina is negative. This dipole
is the basis for detecting eye movements in the EEG.
8. Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of the Wada test?
A. To localize the source of muscle artifact
B. To assess language and memory function in one cerebral hemisphere at a time
C. To measure cerebral blood flow using a radioactive tracer
D. To evaluate for the presence of a brain aneurysm
Correct Answer – B
Rationale – The Wada test (intracarotid sodium amobarbital study) looks at language and
memory on one side of the brain at a time, which is critical for pre-surgical planning in epilepsy
patients.
9. Which of the following best describes the effect of opening the eyes on a posterior
dominant rhythm?
A. It causes an increase in amplitude (Amplification)
B. It causes no change (Stability)
C. It causes a decrease or attenuation (Blocking)
D. It causes a shift to faster frequencies (Acceleration)
Correct Answer – C
Rationale – A normal characteristic of the posterior dominant (alpha) rhythm is that it attenuates
or blocks when the eyes are opened, demonstrating reactivity.
