NR 507 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY ACTUAL MIDTERM EXAM (Lates
Update) Real Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correc
Already Graded A+.CHAMBERLAIN
1. Mutations in the encoding of histones modifying proteins have been shown to influence
the development of what congenial condition: Heart disease
2. Signals to change or modify epigenetic tags are ... from where?: Signals come from inside the cell,
from neighboring cells or the environment
3. During which stage of human development does the role of epigenetics have the
greatest impact on the development of epigenetic abnormalities: A. In utero
4. The difference between DNA sequence mutations and epigenetic modifica- tions is?:
Epigenetic modifications are REVERSIBLE
5. Explain the characteristics of totipotent stem cells and the sources of it: Totipo- tent cells are cells
that can mature into any type of body cell in an organism including the cells that make up the placenta in mammals. Totipotent cells are only
present in mammals in the first few cell divisions of an embryo.
6. Give 2 examples of totipotent cells: A zygote Cells
in the early embyro up to 5 days
7. What is a Totipotent cell?: Totipotent cells are cells that can ditterentiate into any type of body cell and extra embryonic
tissue
8. What are the characteristics of Prader-Willi syndrome?: 1. Chronic feeling of hunger (severe, even
life-threatening obesity)
2. Low muscle tone
3. Short
4. Poor sex characteristic development
5. Behavioral problems
6. Poor cognitive development
9. Angelman syndrome is sometimes called "happy puppet syndrome." What are the signs
of this disorder?: 1. Severe mental retardation
, NR 507 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY ACTUAL MIDTERM EXAM (Lates
Update) Real Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correc
Already Graded A+.CHAMBERLAIN
2. No speech
3. Abnormal gait
4. Wide stance
5. Arms held out kinda weird
10. What is the most common genetic cause of Prader-Willi syndrome?: A deletion of a
segment of PATERNAL chromosome 15q. The maternal counterpart is methylated via genomic imprinting.
, NR 507 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY ACTUAL MIDTERM EXAM (Lates
Update) Real Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correc
Already Graded A+.CHAMBERLAIN
11. What is the most common genetic cause of Angelman syndrome?: A deletion of a segment
of MATERNAL chromosome 15q. The paternal counterpart is methylated via genomic imprinting.
12. A child with Prader-Willi syndrome has been hospitalized. Which assessment findings
does the nurse expect with this syndrome?: Prader-Willi syndrome is characterized by insatiable hunger that can
lead to morbid obesity in childhood. Abnormal, puppetlike gait, paroxysms of inappro- priate laughter, and nonverbal are characteristics
seen in Angelman syndrome.
13. The nurse is examining an 8-year-old boy with chromosomal abnormalities. Which
sign or symptom suggests the boy has Angelman syndrome?: Observation shows jerky ataxic movement
Angelman syndrome is characterized by jerky ataxic movements, similar to a puppet's gait. Hypotonicity is a symptom of Angelman
syndrome as well as Prader Willi syndrome, and Cri-du-chat. Cleft palate is a symptom of velo-cardio-fa- cial/DiGeorge syndrome
14. What is the role of inactive MLH1 in the development of some forms of
inherited colon cancer?: DNA Damage is left unrepaired
15. When considering abnormal epigenetic modifications, what factor is cur- rently
being viewed as strongly associated with the development of some cancers?: Environmental
Stressors
16. 42. The most common cause of pathologic hyperbilirubinemia is:: Hemolytic disorders
in the newborn are the most common cause of pathologic jaundice.
17. Which infant is most likely to express Rh incompatibility?: Infant of an Rh-negative mother
and a father who is Rh positive and homozygous for the Rh factor
Rh-positive ottspring of an Rh-negative mother are at risk for Rh incompatibility
18. Rh hemolytic disease is suspected in a mother's second baby, a son. Which factor
is important in understanding how this could develop?: The first child was Rh positive
19. The nurse is caring for an infant with hemolytic disease. Which medication should
the nurse anticipate to be prescribed to decrease the bilirubin level?: - Phenobarbital
, NR 507 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY ACTUAL MIDTERM EXAM (Lates
Update) Real Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correc
Already Graded A+.CHAMBERLAIN
20. Which of the following combinations may result in the hemolytic disease of the
newborn?: mother Rh negative, baby Rh positive
21. The nurse is caring for a newborn with hemolytic disease of the newborn who is
receiving phototherapy. Which of the following nursing interventions would be most appropriate
for the nurse to do?: The nurse turns the newborn every 3 or 4 hours
22. A patient diagnosed with acute primary HIV infection is in the clinic. What treatment
should be initiated for this patient?: Combination antiretroviral therapy
Didanosine therapy once daily Zidovudine
therapy once daily Monotherapy protease
inhibitor therapy
23. A patient has human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). A nurse realizes the HIV will attack::
C) helper T cells.
24. The nursing instructor is discussing the development of human immunode-
ficiency disease (HIV) with the students. What should the instructor inform the class about
helper T cells?: Fighting infection *
25. A patient has DiGeorge syndrome. Which assessment findings should the nurse
monitor for in this patient?: Low calcium levels and tetany
26. A nurse is caring for a client who is deficient in T cells. Which result of this T cell
deficiency does the nurse anticipate?: B) Decrease in leukocytes
C) Impaired cellular immunity
T cells are subtypes of leukocytes, and they are a key factor in cellular immunity; therefore the client may experience impaired cellular immunity
and a decrease in leukocytes.
27. What is the purpose of pulmonary function testing: To identify and measure pulmonary disease.
28. What is the role of pulmonary function testing?: It serves both a diagnostic and therapeutic role.
It determines how well the lungs work.
Update) Real Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correc
Already Graded A+.CHAMBERLAIN
1. Mutations in the encoding of histones modifying proteins have been shown to influence
the development of what congenial condition: Heart disease
2. Signals to change or modify epigenetic tags are ... from where?: Signals come from inside the cell,
from neighboring cells or the environment
3. During which stage of human development does the role of epigenetics have the
greatest impact on the development of epigenetic abnormalities: A. In utero
4. The difference between DNA sequence mutations and epigenetic modifica- tions is?:
Epigenetic modifications are REVERSIBLE
5. Explain the characteristics of totipotent stem cells and the sources of it: Totipo- tent cells are cells
that can mature into any type of body cell in an organism including the cells that make up the placenta in mammals. Totipotent cells are only
present in mammals in the first few cell divisions of an embryo.
6. Give 2 examples of totipotent cells: A zygote Cells
in the early embyro up to 5 days
7. What is a Totipotent cell?: Totipotent cells are cells that can ditterentiate into any type of body cell and extra embryonic
tissue
8. What are the characteristics of Prader-Willi syndrome?: 1. Chronic feeling of hunger (severe, even
life-threatening obesity)
2. Low muscle tone
3. Short
4. Poor sex characteristic development
5. Behavioral problems
6. Poor cognitive development
9. Angelman syndrome is sometimes called "happy puppet syndrome." What are the signs
of this disorder?: 1. Severe mental retardation
, NR 507 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY ACTUAL MIDTERM EXAM (Lates
Update) Real Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correc
Already Graded A+.CHAMBERLAIN
2. No speech
3. Abnormal gait
4. Wide stance
5. Arms held out kinda weird
10. What is the most common genetic cause of Prader-Willi syndrome?: A deletion of a
segment of PATERNAL chromosome 15q. The maternal counterpart is methylated via genomic imprinting.
, NR 507 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY ACTUAL MIDTERM EXAM (Lates
Update) Real Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correc
Already Graded A+.CHAMBERLAIN
11. What is the most common genetic cause of Angelman syndrome?: A deletion of a segment
of MATERNAL chromosome 15q. The paternal counterpart is methylated via genomic imprinting.
12. A child with Prader-Willi syndrome has been hospitalized. Which assessment findings
does the nurse expect with this syndrome?: Prader-Willi syndrome is characterized by insatiable hunger that can
lead to morbid obesity in childhood. Abnormal, puppetlike gait, paroxysms of inappro- priate laughter, and nonverbal are characteristics
seen in Angelman syndrome.
13. The nurse is examining an 8-year-old boy with chromosomal abnormalities. Which
sign or symptom suggests the boy has Angelman syndrome?: Observation shows jerky ataxic movement
Angelman syndrome is characterized by jerky ataxic movements, similar to a puppet's gait. Hypotonicity is a symptom of Angelman
syndrome as well as Prader Willi syndrome, and Cri-du-chat. Cleft palate is a symptom of velo-cardio-fa- cial/DiGeorge syndrome
14. What is the role of inactive MLH1 in the development of some forms of
inherited colon cancer?: DNA Damage is left unrepaired
15. When considering abnormal epigenetic modifications, what factor is cur- rently
being viewed as strongly associated with the development of some cancers?: Environmental
Stressors
16. 42. The most common cause of pathologic hyperbilirubinemia is:: Hemolytic disorders
in the newborn are the most common cause of pathologic jaundice.
17. Which infant is most likely to express Rh incompatibility?: Infant of an Rh-negative mother
and a father who is Rh positive and homozygous for the Rh factor
Rh-positive ottspring of an Rh-negative mother are at risk for Rh incompatibility
18. Rh hemolytic disease is suspected in a mother's second baby, a son. Which factor
is important in understanding how this could develop?: The first child was Rh positive
19. The nurse is caring for an infant with hemolytic disease. Which medication should
the nurse anticipate to be prescribed to decrease the bilirubin level?: - Phenobarbital
, NR 507 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY ACTUAL MIDTERM EXAM (Lates
Update) Real Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correc
Already Graded A+.CHAMBERLAIN
20. Which of the following combinations may result in the hemolytic disease of the
newborn?: mother Rh negative, baby Rh positive
21. The nurse is caring for a newborn with hemolytic disease of the newborn who is
receiving phototherapy. Which of the following nursing interventions would be most appropriate
for the nurse to do?: The nurse turns the newborn every 3 or 4 hours
22. A patient diagnosed with acute primary HIV infection is in the clinic. What treatment
should be initiated for this patient?: Combination antiretroviral therapy
Didanosine therapy once daily Zidovudine
therapy once daily Monotherapy protease
inhibitor therapy
23. A patient has human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). A nurse realizes the HIV will attack::
C) helper T cells.
24. The nursing instructor is discussing the development of human immunode-
ficiency disease (HIV) with the students. What should the instructor inform the class about
helper T cells?: Fighting infection *
25. A patient has DiGeorge syndrome. Which assessment findings should the nurse
monitor for in this patient?: Low calcium levels and tetany
26. A nurse is caring for a client who is deficient in T cells. Which result of this T cell
deficiency does the nurse anticipate?: B) Decrease in leukocytes
C) Impaired cellular immunity
T cells are subtypes of leukocytes, and they are a key factor in cellular immunity; therefore the client may experience impaired cellular immunity
and a decrease in leukocytes.
27. What is the purpose of pulmonary function testing: To identify and measure pulmonary disease.
28. What is the role of pulmonary function testing?: It serves both a diagnostic and therapeutic role.
It determines how well the lungs work.
