Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN) Exam Verified
Questions, Correct Answers, and Detailed Explanations for
Computer Science Students||Already Graded A+
1. A 65-year-old patient presents with fatigue and pallor. Lab results show
hemoglobin 9 g/dL and MCV 72 fL. The most likely cause is:
A) Vitamin B12 deficiency
B) Iron deficiency anemia
C) Anemia of chronic disease
D) Hemolytic anemia
Answer: B) Iron deficiency anemia
Rationale: Microcytic anemia (MCV < 80 fL) in an older adult is most commonly
due to iron deficiency, often from chronic blood loss.
2. Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line treatment for
hypertension in an African American patient without CKD or diabetes?
A) ACE inhibitor
B) Thiazide diuretic
C) Beta-blocker
D) ARB
Answer: B) Thiazide diuretic
Rationale: Guidelines recommend thiazide diuretics or calcium channel blockers
as first-line therapy for African American patients due to better blood pressure
response.
3. A 72-year-old patient reports new-onset confusion, fever, and urinary
incontinence. The most likely diagnosis is:
A) Stroke
B) Urinary tract infection
C) Dementia exacerbation
D) Electrolyte imbalance
Answer: B) Urinary tract infection
Rationale: In older adults, UTI can present with acute confusion (delirium)
rather than typical urinary symptoms.
,4. Which vaccination is recommended annually for all adults aged ≥50 years?
A) Pneumococcal vaccine
B) Herpes zoster vaccine
C) Influenza vaccine
D) Tdap booster
Answer: C) Influenza vaccine
Rationale: Annual influenza vaccination is recommended for all adults ≥50
years to reduce morbidity and mortality from flu.
5. Which lab finding is most consistent with chronic kidney disease?
A) Hypernatremia
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Hypophosphatemia
D) Elevated albumin
Answer: B) Hyperkalemia
Rationale: CKD often results in impaired potassium excretion, leading to
hyperkalemia, along with elevated creatinine and BUN.
6. First-line therapy for type 2 diabetes in adults is:
A) Insulin
B) Sulfonylureas
C) Metformin
D) GLP-1 receptor agonist
Answer: C) Metformin
Rationale: Metformin is recommended as first-line therapy due to efficacy,
safety, weight neutrality, and cardiovascular benefits.
7. A 70-year-old male presents with dyspnea on exertion and ankle edema.
BNP is elevated. The most likely diagnosis is:
A) COPD
B) Heart failure
C) Pulmonary embolism
, D) Pneumonia
Answer: B) Heart failure
Rationale: Elevated BNP, dyspnea, and peripheral edema are classic signs of
heart failure, especially in older adults.
8. Which lipid-lowering therapy is most appropriate for a patient with LDL
>190 mg/dL and no history of cardiovascular disease?
A) Lifestyle modification only
B) Statin therapy
C) Bile acid sequestrant
D) Niacin
Answer: B) Statin therapy
Rationale: High-intensity statin therapy is recommended for adults with LDL
≥190 mg/dL to reduce ASCVD risk.
9. A 68-year-old patient presents with resting tremor, bradykinesia, and
rigidity. The most likely diagnosis is:
A) Huntington’s disease
B) Parkinson’s disease
C) Alzheimer’s disease
D) Multiple sclerosis
Answer: B) Parkinson’s disease
Rationale: Classic Parkinson’s disease symptoms include resting tremor,
bradykinesia, and rigidity.
10. A patient is prescribed warfarin. Which lab value should be monitored
regularly?
A) PT/INR
B) aPTT
C) Platelet count
D) Hemoglobin
Answer: A) PT/INR
Rationale: PT/INR monitoring ensures therapeutic anticoagulation with
warfarin and minimizes bleeding risk.
Questions, Correct Answers, and Detailed Explanations for
Computer Science Students||Already Graded A+
1. A 65-year-old patient presents with fatigue and pallor. Lab results show
hemoglobin 9 g/dL and MCV 72 fL. The most likely cause is:
A) Vitamin B12 deficiency
B) Iron deficiency anemia
C) Anemia of chronic disease
D) Hemolytic anemia
Answer: B) Iron deficiency anemia
Rationale: Microcytic anemia (MCV < 80 fL) in an older adult is most commonly
due to iron deficiency, often from chronic blood loss.
2. Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line treatment for
hypertension in an African American patient without CKD or diabetes?
A) ACE inhibitor
B) Thiazide diuretic
C) Beta-blocker
D) ARB
Answer: B) Thiazide diuretic
Rationale: Guidelines recommend thiazide diuretics or calcium channel blockers
as first-line therapy for African American patients due to better blood pressure
response.
3. A 72-year-old patient reports new-onset confusion, fever, and urinary
incontinence. The most likely diagnosis is:
A) Stroke
B) Urinary tract infection
C) Dementia exacerbation
D) Electrolyte imbalance
Answer: B) Urinary tract infection
Rationale: In older adults, UTI can present with acute confusion (delirium)
rather than typical urinary symptoms.
,4. Which vaccination is recommended annually for all adults aged ≥50 years?
A) Pneumococcal vaccine
B) Herpes zoster vaccine
C) Influenza vaccine
D) Tdap booster
Answer: C) Influenza vaccine
Rationale: Annual influenza vaccination is recommended for all adults ≥50
years to reduce morbidity and mortality from flu.
5. Which lab finding is most consistent with chronic kidney disease?
A) Hypernatremia
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Hypophosphatemia
D) Elevated albumin
Answer: B) Hyperkalemia
Rationale: CKD often results in impaired potassium excretion, leading to
hyperkalemia, along with elevated creatinine and BUN.
6. First-line therapy for type 2 diabetes in adults is:
A) Insulin
B) Sulfonylureas
C) Metformin
D) GLP-1 receptor agonist
Answer: C) Metformin
Rationale: Metformin is recommended as first-line therapy due to efficacy,
safety, weight neutrality, and cardiovascular benefits.
7. A 70-year-old male presents with dyspnea on exertion and ankle edema.
BNP is elevated. The most likely diagnosis is:
A) COPD
B) Heart failure
C) Pulmonary embolism
, D) Pneumonia
Answer: B) Heart failure
Rationale: Elevated BNP, dyspnea, and peripheral edema are classic signs of
heart failure, especially in older adults.
8. Which lipid-lowering therapy is most appropriate for a patient with LDL
>190 mg/dL and no history of cardiovascular disease?
A) Lifestyle modification only
B) Statin therapy
C) Bile acid sequestrant
D) Niacin
Answer: B) Statin therapy
Rationale: High-intensity statin therapy is recommended for adults with LDL
≥190 mg/dL to reduce ASCVD risk.
9. A 68-year-old patient presents with resting tremor, bradykinesia, and
rigidity. The most likely diagnosis is:
A) Huntington’s disease
B) Parkinson’s disease
C) Alzheimer’s disease
D) Multiple sclerosis
Answer: B) Parkinson’s disease
Rationale: Classic Parkinson’s disease symptoms include resting tremor,
bradykinesia, and rigidity.
10. A patient is prescribed warfarin. Which lab value should be monitored
regularly?
A) PT/INR
B) aPTT
C) Platelet count
D) Hemoglobin
Answer: A) PT/INR
Rationale: PT/INR monitoring ensures therapeutic anticoagulation with
warfarin and minimizes bleeding risk.
