Question 1
What term describes the extent to which an intervention produces a desired outcome under usual,
real-world clinical conditions?
A) Efficacy
B) Efficiency
C) Effectiveness
D) External validity
E) Internal validity
Correct Answer: C) Effectiveness
Rationale: Effectiveness refers to the success of an intervention when used in an actual
clinical environment with a typical patient population. This is distinct from efficacy, which
measures the outcome under ideal, controlled experimental conditions.
Question 2
A patient presents with signs and symptoms of a slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE). Which of
the following is a common clinical finding for this condition?
A) Pain localized to the knee joint only.
B) Increased hip internal rotation and adduction.
C) Groin pain that radiates into the anterior thigh and an antalgic gait pattern.
D) A preference for standing with the affected leg in a medially rotated position.
E) Pain that is only present at night.
Correct Answer: C) Groin pain that radiates into the anterior thigh and an antalgic gait pattern.
Rationale: SCFE is a condition where the head of the femur slips off the neck of the femur. It
typically presents in adolescents with groin or anterior thigh pain (which can sometimes refer
to the knee), a limp (antalgic gait), and a preference to hold the affected leg in lateral rotation.
Question 3
A patient reports pain on the plantar surface of the foot, along with forefoot burning, cramping, and
numbness between the third and fourth metatarsal heads. The pain is reproduced when the therapist
squeezes the metatarsal heads together. This presentation MOST likely indicates:
A) Plantar fasciitis
B) Tarsal tunnel syndrome
C) Morton's neuroma
D) A metatarsal stress fracture
E) Hallux valgus
Correct Answer: C) Morton's neuroma
Rationale: This is the classic presentation of Morton's neuroma, which is a thickening of the
tissue around one of the nerves leading to the toes. It most commonly occurs between the
third and fourth metatarsals. The squeezing maneuver, known as Mulder's sign, is a
provocative test that compresses the neuroma and reproduces the symptoms.
,Question 4
A patient with Parkinson's disease (PD) is being monitored. Which of the following is a potential
respiratory finding in a patient with advanced PD?
A) A normal respiratory rate of 12-20 breaths/minute.
B) An erratic or irregular respiratory pattern.
C) A consistently slow respiratory rate (bradypnea).
D) A consistently rapid respiratory rate (tachypnea).
E) Cardiac arrhythmias.
Correct Answer: B) An erratic or irregular respiratory pattern.
Rationale: In advanced stages of Parkinson's disease, the rigidity and bradykinesia can affect
the muscles of respiration. This can lead to a restrictive lung pattern and an inefficient,
irregular, or erratic breathing pattern.
Question 5
A physical therapist is designing a set of public stairs. To comply with ADA guidelines, what is the
maximum allowable height for a step riser?
A) 6 inches
B) 7 inches
C) 8 inches
D) 9 inches
E) There is no maximum height.
Correct Answer: B) 7 inches
Rationale: The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) Accessibility Guidelines specify
standards for stair construction to ensure safety and accessibility. The riser height must be a
maximum of 7 inches and a minimum of 4 inches.
Question 6
According to ADA guidelines for public stairs, what is the minimum allowable tread depth?
A) 9 inches
B) 10 inches
C) 11 inches
D) 12 inches
E) There is no minimum depth.
Correct Answer: C) 11 inches
Rationale: The ADA Accessibility Guidelines require that stair treads be at least 11 inches
deep, measured from riser to riser, to provide adequate space for foot placement.
Question 7
A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has a respiratory rate of 30
breaths/minute and is exhibiting prominent use of accessory muscles like the upper trapezius and
,sternocleidomastoid. Which intervention is MOST appropriate to teach the patient to reduce their
work of breathing?
A) Segmental breathing
B) Pursed-lip breathing
C) Diaphragmatic breathing
D) Incentive spirometry
E) Huffing techniques
Correct Answer: B) Pursed-lip breathing
Rationale: Pursed-lip breathing is a technique specifically used to help patients with
obstructive lung disease. By exhaling slowly through pursed lips, the patient creates a small
amount of back-pressure (positive end-expiratory pressure), which helps to stent the small
airways open, prevent air trapping, and decrease the respiratory rate and the work of
breathing.
Question 8
Exercise-induced bronchospasm is a common issue for some individuals. Symptoms are MOST
likely to be exacerbated when exercising in which of the following environments?
A) A warm and humid environment
B) A cold and dry environment
C) An indoor, air-conditioned environment
D) A swimming pool
E) An environment with low air pollution.
Correct Answer: B) A cold and dry environment
Rationale: Exercise-induced bronchospasm is triggered by the cooling and drying of the
airways that occurs with the rapid breathing during exercise. This effect is most pronounced
when the ambient air is cold and has low humidity.
Question 9
A physical therapist is planning to mobilize a patient in the intensive care unit. Which of the following
pieces of equipment would pose the GREATEST restriction to the patient's mobility and require the
most careful management?
A) A mechanical ventilator
B) A tracheostomy tube
C) An intracranial pressure (ICP) monitor
D) A temporary pacemaker
E) A peripheral IV line
Correct Answer: C) An intracranial pressure (ICP) monitor
Rationale: An ICP monitor is an invasive device placed directly into the cranium. Certain
activities, such as changing the head of bed position or physical exertion, can dangerously
increase intracranial pressure. Any mobility must be done with extreme caution, constant
, monitoring of the ICP reading, and often with the collaboration of a nurse to manage the
drainage system. It is a major contraindication to many activities.
Question 10
What is the definition of a latent trigger point?
A) A trigger point that is always painful, even at rest.
B) A trigger point that is only painful when palpated.
C) A trigger point that refers pain to a distant location.
D) A trigger point that causes autonomic phenomena like sweating.
E) A trigger point that has been successfully treated.
Correct Answer: B) A trigger point that is only painful when palpated.
Rationale: Trigger points are classified as either active or latent. An active trigger point
causes pain at rest and is tender to palpation. A latent trigger point does not cause
spontaneous pain but is tender when compressed and can refer pain upon palpation.
Question 11
A patient has a complete spinal cord injury at the L5 level. The injury has damaged the sacral spinal
cord segments (S2-S4). The nurse should expect this patient to have what type of bladder
dysfunction?
A) An areflexic (flaccid) bladder
B) A spastic (reflex) bladder
C) An uninhibited bladder
D) A normal bladder function
E) Stress incontinence
Correct Answer: A) An areflexic (flaccid) bladder
Rationale: The sacral segments S2-S4 contain the parasympathetic nerve cell bodies
responsible for the bladder's voiding reflex. An injury to these segments or the nerve roots
constitutes a lower motor neuron (LMN) lesion. This destroys the reflex arc, resulting in a
flaccid, areflexic bladder that cannot contract on its own and will fill until it overflows
(overflow incontinence).
Question 12
Ankylosing spondylitis is a chronic inflammatory disease that primarily affects the spine. Over time,
this condition can lead to which of the following secondary complications?
A) Osteoporosis
B) Osteoarthritis of the hands
C) Carpal tunnel syndrome
D) Gout
E) Peripheral neuropathy
What term describes the extent to which an intervention produces a desired outcome under usual,
real-world clinical conditions?
A) Efficacy
B) Efficiency
C) Effectiveness
D) External validity
E) Internal validity
Correct Answer: C) Effectiveness
Rationale: Effectiveness refers to the success of an intervention when used in an actual
clinical environment with a typical patient population. This is distinct from efficacy, which
measures the outcome under ideal, controlled experimental conditions.
Question 2
A patient presents with signs and symptoms of a slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE). Which of
the following is a common clinical finding for this condition?
A) Pain localized to the knee joint only.
B) Increased hip internal rotation and adduction.
C) Groin pain that radiates into the anterior thigh and an antalgic gait pattern.
D) A preference for standing with the affected leg in a medially rotated position.
E) Pain that is only present at night.
Correct Answer: C) Groin pain that radiates into the anterior thigh and an antalgic gait pattern.
Rationale: SCFE is a condition where the head of the femur slips off the neck of the femur. It
typically presents in adolescents with groin or anterior thigh pain (which can sometimes refer
to the knee), a limp (antalgic gait), and a preference to hold the affected leg in lateral rotation.
Question 3
A patient reports pain on the plantar surface of the foot, along with forefoot burning, cramping, and
numbness between the third and fourth metatarsal heads. The pain is reproduced when the therapist
squeezes the metatarsal heads together. This presentation MOST likely indicates:
A) Plantar fasciitis
B) Tarsal tunnel syndrome
C) Morton's neuroma
D) A metatarsal stress fracture
E) Hallux valgus
Correct Answer: C) Morton's neuroma
Rationale: This is the classic presentation of Morton's neuroma, which is a thickening of the
tissue around one of the nerves leading to the toes. It most commonly occurs between the
third and fourth metatarsals. The squeezing maneuver, known as Mulder's sign, is a
provocative test that compresses the neuroma and reproduces the symptoms.
,Question 4
A patient with Parkinson's disease (PD) is being monitored. Which of the following is a potential
respiratory finding in a patient with advanced PD?
A) A normal respiratory rate of 12-20 breaths/minute.
B) An erratic or irregular respiratory pattern.
C) A consistently slow respiratory rate (bradypnea).
D) A consistently rapid respiratory rate (tachypnea).
E) Cardiac arrhythmias.
Correct Answer: B) An erratic or irregular respiratory pattern.
Rationale: In advanced stages of Parkinson's disease, the rigidity and bradykinesia can affect
the muscles of respiration. This can lead to a restrictive lung pattern and an inefficient,
irregular, or erratic breathing pattern.
Question 5
A physical therapist is designing a set of public stairs. To comply with ADA guidelines, what is the
maximum allowable height for a step riser?
A) 6 inches
B) 7 inches
C) 8 inches
D) 9 inches
E) There is no maximum height.
Correct Answer: B) 7 inches
Rationale: The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) Accessibility Guidelines specify
standards for stair construction to ensure safety and accessibility. The riser height must be a
maximum of 7 inches and a minimum of 4 inches.
Question 6
According to ADA guidelines for public stairs, what is the minimum allowable tread depth?
A) 9 inches
B) 10 inches
C) 11 inches
D) 12 inches
E) There is no minimum depth.
Correct Answer: C) 11 inches
Rationale: The ADA Accessibility Guidelines require that stair treads be at least 11 inches
deep, measured from riser to riser, to provide adequate space for foot placement.
Question 7
A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has a respiratory rate of 30
breaths/minute and is exhibiting prominent use of accessory muscles like the upper trapezius and
,sternocleidomastoid. Which intervention is MOST appropriate to teach the patient to reduce their
work of breathing?
A) Segmental breathing
B) Pursed-lip breathing
C) Diaphragmatic breathing
D) Incentive spirometry
E) Huffing techniques
Correct Answer: B) Pursed-lip breathing
Rationale: Pursed-lip breathing is a technique specifically used to help patients with
obstructive lung disease. By exhaling slowly through pursed lips, the patient creates a small
amount of back-pressure (positive end-expiratory pressure), which helps to stent the small
airways open, prevent air trapping, and decrease the respiratory rate and the work of
breathing.
Question 8
Exercise-induced bronchospasm is a common issue for some individuals. Symptoms are MOST
likely to be exacerbated when exercising in which of the following environments?
A) A warm and humid environment
B) A cold and dry environment
C) An indoor, air-conditioned environment
D) A swimming pool
E) An environment with low air pollution.
Correct Answer: B) A cold and dry environment
Rationale: Exercise-induced bronchospasm is triggered by the cooling and drying of the
airways that occurs with the rapid breathing during exercise. This effect is most pronounced
when the ambient air is cold and has low humidity.
Question 9
A physical therapist is planning to mobilize a patient in the intensive care unit. Which of the following
pieces of equipment would pose the GREATEST restriction to the patient's mobility and require the
most careful management?
A) A mechanical ventilator
B) A tracheostomy tube
C) An intracranial pressure (ICP) monitor
D) A temporary pacemaker
E) A peripheral IV line
Correct Answer: C) An intracranial pressure (ICP) monitor
Rationale: An ICP monitor is an invasive device placed directly into the cranium. Certain
activities, such as changing the head of bed position or physical exertion, can dangerously
increase intracranial pressure. Any mobility must be done with extreme caution, constant
, monitoring of the ICP reading, and often with the collaboration of a nurse to manage the
drainage system. It is a major contraindication to many activities.
Question 10
What is the definition of a latent trigger point?
A) A trigger point that is always painful, even at rest.
B) A trigger point that is only painful when palpated.
C) A trigger point that refers pain to a distant location.
D) A trigger point that causes autonomic phenomena like sweating.
E) A trigger point that has been successfully treated.
Correct Answer: B) A trigger point that is only painful when palpated.
Rationale: Trigger points are classified as either active or latent. An active trigger point
causes pain at rest and is tender to palpation. A latent trigger point does not cause
spontaneous pain but is tender when compressed and can refer pain upon palpation.
Question 11
A patient has a complete spinal cord injury at the L5 level. The injury has damaged the sacral spinal
cord segments (S2-S4). The nurse should expect this patient to have what type of bladder
dysfunction?
A) An areflexic (flaccid) bladder
B) A spastic (reflex) bladder
C) An uninhibited bladder
D) A normal bladder function
E) Stress incontinence
Correct Answer: A) An areflexic (flaccid) bladder
Rationale: The sacral segments S2-S4 contain the parasympathetic nerve cell bodies
responsible for the bladder's voiding reflex. An injury to these segments or the nerve roots
constitutes a lower motor neuron (LMN) lesion. This destroys the reflex arc, resulting in a
flaccid, areflexic bladder that cannot contract on its own and will fill until it overflows
(overflow incontinence).
Question 12
Ankylosing spondylitis is a chronic inflammatory disease that primarily affects the spine. Over time,
this condition can lead to which of the following secondary complications?
A) Osteoporosis
B) Osteoarthritis of the hands
C) Carpal tunnel syndrome
D) Gout
E) Peripheral neuropathy
