NAVLE PREP EXAM QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATIONS
Which of these viruses are normally found in the upper respiratory tract of the horse?
Equine viral arteritis virus
Equine herpesvirus
Equine influenza
Equine adenovirus - Answer- Explanation - The correct answer is equine adenovirus.
Adenovirus is normal in the upper respiratory tract but can cause a lower respiratory
tract infection in immunocompromised individuals, particularly foals with failure of
passive transfer or combined immunodeficiency. In fact, adenovirus is the most
common cause of death in foals with those two conditions, leading to an often fatal
pneumonia.
Which of the following is required for chinchilla health?
Dust baths
Vitamin C
A warm (90 degree) basking spot
Monthly dental adjustments
Cedar shavings - Answer- Dust baths
Explanation - Chinchillas require dust baths every 1-2 days in order to maintain coat
health. The dust bath should not be left in the enclosure at all times since frequent
bathing may cause conjunctivitis. Chinchillas are heat-intolerant, and the enclosure
should not be kept at temperatures above 80 degrees Fahrenheit. Cedar shavings
should be avoided as bedding, since they can cause respiratory irritation. Chinchillas do
not require supplemental Vitamin C. Healthy chinchillas do not require dental
adjustments, although dental disease is a common problem in chinchillas.
A 4-week old Airedale terrier puppy presents for its first physical examination and
vaccinations. On physical exam, a small umbilical hernia is palpated. The hernia does
not appear to be painful when palpated. Of the options below, which is the best
treatment of choice?
Schedule surgery after 6 months of age if the hernia is still present
Strongly recommend euthanasia as repair always results in failure
Schedule surgery as soon as the puppy is old enough to withstand the stress of
anesthesia
Schedule surgery immediately to avoid entrapment - Answer- The correct answer is to
schedule surgery after 6 months of age if the hernia is still present. Umbilical hernias
are congenital in origin. They result from failure or delayed fusion of the rectus
,abdominis muscle and fascia. Small hernias may be treated conservatively as many of
them close up by six months of age. These animals do not need to be euthanized. Also
assess for cryptorchidism as many of these patients are concurrently cryptorchid.
Which of the following is not a treatment option for a ruptured cranial cruciate ligament
for a dog?
Recession trochleoplasty
Leveling of the tibial plateau
Weight reduction
Cranial transposition of the fibular head - Answer- The correct answer is recession
trochleoplasty. This technique is part of a surgical repair method for luxating patellas.
Weight reduction is nearly always a therapeutic component to managing orthopedic
disease. Leveling of the tibial plateau and cranial transposition of the fibular head are
two surgical options for correcting a torn cranial cruciate ligament.
You are examining an 8-year old spayed female mixed breed dog that became
suddenly blind after being previously normal yesterday. Ophthalmic and fundic exams
are normal. What is the most likely cause of the dog's blindness?
Primary brain tumor
Progressive Retinal Atrophy (PRA)
Sudden Acquired Retinal Degeneration Syndrome (SARDS)
Glaucoma - Answer- The correct answer is SARDS. SARDS is a condition seen usually
in middle-aged obese female spayed dogs. They develop acute blindness and initially
have no optic or fundoscopic lesions. In 1-2 months, they will develop retinal vascular
attenuation and tapetal hyperreflectivity. A primary brain tumor would be more likely to
show progressive signs.
You are performing a fracture repair of the tibia and fibula in a 4-year old Siberian
Husky. Which of the following would provide at least 12 hours of analgesia after the
procedure?
10 ug/kg of fentanyl given intravenously intraoperatively and immediately
postoperatively
0.1 mg/kg of hydromorphone given subcutaneously intraoperatively and immediately
postoperatively
0.1 mg/kg preservative free morphine given epidurally
4 mg/kg lidocaine given epidurally - Answer- Epidural morphine is an effective analgesic
for 12-24 hours, while lidocaine lasts only several hours. Fentanyl is a short acting
opioid and would only be effective over 12 hours if given repeatedly or as a constant
rate infusion (CRI). The effects of hydromorphone last only 4-6 hours.
You have diagnosed a 6-month old male neutered Yorkshire Terrier with a
portosystemic shunt. His bile acids were greater than 100 umol/L fasting and post-
feeding. Which of the following abnormalities would you NOT expect to find on
bloodwork and urinalysis?
Hypoproteinemia
Microcytosis
,Increased ALT
Hyperglycemia
Ammonium biurate crystaluria - Answer- Hypoproteinemia is secondary to a decreased
production of albumin by the liver. Blood glucose is usually low in shunt patients. Liver
enzymes are usually high, but can be normal. Ammonium biurate crystals and stones
form due to the increased amount of ammonium in the blood and urine. Microcytosis
occurs, the pathogenesis is unknown, but it is thought that iron deficiency is not
involved.
A 5-year old male neutered German Shepherd presents with a history of nasal
dermatitis. Previous treatment with a 2-week course of antibiotics and prednisone
resulted in partial improvement of the lesions followed by recurrence. On physical
examination, you see the lesions on the nasal planum and oral mucosa shown in the
images.
You perform a biopsy, and histopathology shows clefts characterized by residual basal
keratinocytes remaining attached to the basement membrane zone and having a
"tombstone" appearance. The intact primary bullae are non-inflammatory, but there is
mononuclear inflammation of the superficial dermis. IgG and complement deposition
between keratinocytes at all levels of the epidermis is present. The histologic diagnosis
is pemphigus vulgaris. Which of the following is appropriate information to give the client
regarding the treatment AND prognosis for this condition?
Image used with permission, - Answer- Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune disorder
causing vesicles, ulceration, and crusting. It can affect the whole body, but it especially
affects the mucocutaneous junctions and oral mucosa. The onset of the disease can be
sudden (acute) or gradual over many weeks (chronic).
The disorder is caused by an IgG autoantibody that binds to intracellular adhesion
molecules (desmoglein) causing a loss of cohesion between keratinocytes resulting in
acantholysis, vesicle formation, and eventually ulceration.
The treatment is immunosuppressive therapy with corticosteroids and frequently
additional immunomodulatory or immunosuppressive drugs such as azathioprine,
cyclophosphamide, chlorambucil, or others. Unfortunately, long-term therapy is
generally required and these treatments cause serious side-effects long-term.
Prognosis is poor and euthanasia is often performed.
Which of the following drugs and treatment intervals are appropriate for preventing
heartworm disease in dogs?
Milbemycin oxime once daily
Ivermectin once daily
Milbemycin twice daily
Ivermectin once a month
, Diethylcarbamazine once monthly - Answer- The correct answer is ivermectin once
monthly. Diethylcarbamazine (DEC) can be used to prevent heartworm, but is
administered once daily. Milbemycin oxime is another preventative used once monthly.
What nerve(s) need to be blocked in order to dehorn cattle? - Answer- Cornual
What nerve(s) need to be blocked in order to dehorn goats? - Answer- cornual nerve
and infratrochlear nerve
Several rabbits in a commercial meat operation have developed genital scabs, perineal
ulcerations a crusty exudate around the nose and eyes. Microhemaglutination tests are
positive for treponematosis.
Which one of the following steps is most effective to treat this problem?
A - Amprolium-medicated feed for whole herd, 2 weeks; Increase ventilation
B - Clindamycin PO for exposed rabbits, 8 days; Cull affected animals
C - Amipcillin PO for affected rabbits, 10-14 days
D - Isolate affected animals, Lincomycin in water 2-3 weeks
E - Penicillin IM for all rabbits, 5-7 days - Answer- Penicillin IM for all rabbits, 5-7 days
Two bucket-fed veal calves are depressed and stunted and have sticky feces coating
their hindquarters. Fluid-splashing sounds are audible during auscultation over the left
flank when a calf is drinking.
Passage of a stomach tube obtains a rancid-smelling liquid with a pH of 5.2 [N=5.9-6.2]
Which one of the following choices is the most appropriate treatment?
A - Cull affected calves
B - Remove fermented rumen contents, flush with saline
C - Wean affected calves; Shift to bottle-feeding for well calves
D - Vitamin E/Selenium injections, plus dietary supplements
E - Inoculate rumen fluid from a healthy cow into calf by stomach tube - Answer- B -
Remove fermented rumen contents, flush with saline
This is the clinical picture of a ruminal drinker calf with chronic indigestion from milk
deposited directly into the rumen.
Treat by removing the fermented material and flushing the rumen with saline. Attempt to
induce gastric/reticular groove closure during feeding by inducing vigorous sucking
activity with a finger before feeding milk. If calves relapse, consider weaning.
ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATIONS
Which of these viruses are normally found in the upper respiratory tract of the horse?
Equine viral arteritis virus
Equine herpesvirus
Equine influenza
Equine adenovirus - Answer- Explanation - The correct answer is equine adenovirus.
Adenovirus is normal in the upper respiratory tract but can cause a lower respiratory
tract infection in immunocompromised individuals, particularly foals with failure of
passive transfer or combined immunodeficiency. In fact, adenovirus is the most
common cause of death in foals with those two conditions, leading to an often fatal
pneumonia.
Which of the following is required for chinchilla health?
Dust baths
Vitamin C
A warm (90 degree) basking spot
Monthly dental adjustments
Cedar shavings - Answer- Dust baths
Explanation - Chinchillas require dust baths every 1-2 days in order to maintain coat
health. The dust bath should not be left in the enclosure at all times since frequent
bathing may cause conjunctivitis. Chinchillas are heat-intolerant, and the enclosure
should not be kept at temperatures above 80 degrees Fahrenheit. Cedar shavings
should be avoided as bedding, since they can cause respiratory irritation. Chinchillas do
not require supplemental Vitamin C. Healthy chinchillas do not require dental
adjustments, although dental disease is a common problem in chinchillas.
A 4-week old Airedale terrier puppy presents for its first physical examination and
vaccinations. On physical exam, a small umbilical hernia is palpated. The hernia does
not appear to be painful when palpated. Of the options below, which is the best
treatment of choice?
Schedule surgery after 6 months of age if the hernia is still present
Strongly recommend euthanasia as repair always results in failure
Schedule surgery as soon as the puppy is old enough to withstand the stress of
anesthesia
Schedule surgery immediately to avoid entrapment - Answer- The correct answer is to
schedule surgery after 6 months of age if the hernia is still present. Umbilical hernias
are congenital in origin. They result from failure or delayed fusion of the rectus
,abdominis muscle and fascia. Small hernias may be treated conservatively as many of
them close up by six months of age. These animals do not need to be euthanized. Also
assess for cryptorchidism as many of these patients are concurrently cryptorchid.
Which of the following is not a treatment option for a ruptured cranial cruciate ligament
for a dog?
Recession trochleoplasty
Leveling of the tibial plateau
Weight reduction
Cranial transposition of the fibular head - Answer- The correct answer is recession
trochleoplasty. This technique is part of a surgical repair method for luxating patellas.
Weight reduction is nearly always a therapeutic component to managing orthopedic
disease. Leveling of the tibial plateau and cranial transposition of the fibular head are
two surgical options for correcting a torn cranial cruciate ligament.
You are examining an 8-year old spayed female mixed breed dog that became
suddenly blind after being previously normal yesterday. Ophthalmic and fundic exams
are normal. What is the most likely cause of the dog's blindness?
Primary brain tumor
Progressive Retinal Atrophy (PRA)
Sudden Acquired Retinal Degeneration Syndrome (SARDS)
Glaucoma - Answer- The correct answer is SARDS. SARDS is a condition seen usually
in middle-aged obese female spayed dogs. They develop acute blindness and initially
have no optic or fundoscopic lesions. In 1-2 months, they will develop retinal vascular
attenuation and tapetal hyperreflectivity. A primary brain tumor would be more likely to
show progressive signs.
You are performing a fracture repair of the tibia and fibula in a 4-year old Siberian
Husky. Which of the following would provide at least 12 hours of analgesia after the
procedure?
10 ug/kg of fentanyl given intravenously intraoperatively and immediately
postoperatively
0.1 mg/kg of hydromorphone given subcutaneously intraoperatively and immediately
postoperatively
0.1 mg/kg preservative free morphine given epidurally
4 mg/kg lidocaine given epidurally - Answer- Epidural morphine is an effective analgesic
for 12-24 hours, while lidocaine lasts only several hours. Fentanyl is a short acting
opioid and would only be effective over 12 hours if given repeatedly or as a constant
rate infusion (CRI). The effects of hydromorphone last only 4-6 hours.
You have diagnosed a 6-month old male neutered Yorkshire Terrier with a
portosystemic shunt. His bile acids were greater than 100 umol/L fasting and post-
feeding. Which of the following abnormalities would you NOT expect to find on
bloodwork and urinalysis?
Hypoproteinemia
Microcytosis
,Increased ALT
Hyperglycemia
Ammonium biurate crystaluria - Answer- Hypoproteinemia is secondary to a decreased
production of albumin by the liver. Blood glucose is usually low in shunt patients. Liver
enzymes are usually high, but can be normal. Ammonium biurate crystals and stones
form due to the increased amount of ammonium in the blood and urine. Microcytosis
occurs, the pathogenesis is unknown, but it is thought that iron deficiency is not
involved.
A 5-year old male neutered German Shepherd presents with a history of nasal
dermatitis. Previous treatment with a 2-week course of antibiotics and prednisone
resulted in partial improvement of the lesions followed by recurrence. On physical
examination, you see the lesions on the nasal planum and oral mucosa shown in the
images.
You perform a biopsy, and histopathology shows clefts characterized by residual basal
keratinocytes remaining attached to the basement membrane zone and having a
"tombstone" appearance. The intact primary bullae are non-inflammatory, but there is
mononuclear inflammation of the superficial dermis. IgG and complement deposition
between keratinocytes at all levels of the epidermis is present. The histologic diagnosis
is pemphigus vulgaris. Which of the following is appropriate information to give the client
regarding the treatment AND prognosis for this condition?
Image used with permission, - Answer- Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune disorder
causing vesicles, ulceration, and crusting. It can affect the whole body, but it especially
affects the mucocutaneous junctions and oral mucosa. The onset of the disease can be
sudden (acute) or gradual over many weeks (chronic).
The disorder is caused by an IgG autoantibody that binds to intracellular adhesion
molecules (desmoglein) causing a loss of cohesion between keratinocytes resulting in
acantholysis, vesicle formation, and eventually ulceration.
The treatment is immunosuppressive therapy with corticosteroids and frequently
additional immunomodulatory or immunosuppressive drugs such as azathioprine,
cyclophosphamide, chlorambucil, or others. Unfortunately, long-term therapy is
generally required and these treatments cause serious side-effects long-term.
Prognosis is poor and euthanasia is often performed.
Which of the following drugs and treatment intervals are appropriate for preventing
heartworm disease in dogs?
Milbemycin oxime once daily
Ivermectin once daily
Milbemycin twice daily
Ivermectin once a month
, Diethylcarbamazine once monthly - Answer- The correct answer is ivermectin once
monthly. Diethylcarbamazine (DEC) can be used to prevent heartworm, but is
administered once daily. Milbemycin oxime is another preventative used once monthly.
What nerve(s) need to be blocked in order to dehorn cattle? - Answer- Cornual
What nerve(s) need to be blocked in order to dehorn goats? - Answer- cornual nerve
and infratrochlear nerve
Several rabbits in a commercial meat operation have developed genital scabs, perineal
ulcerations a crusty exudate around the nose and eyes. Microhemaglutination tests are
positive for treponematosis.
Which one of the following steps is most effective to treat this problem?
A - Amprolium-medicated feed for whole herd, 2 weeks; Increase ventilation
B - Clindamycin PO for exposed rabbits, 8 days; Cull affected animals
C - Amipcillin PO for affected rabbits, 10-14 days
D - Isolate affected animals, Lincomycin in water 2-3 weeks
E - Penicillin IM for all rabbits, 5-7 days - Answer- Penicillin IM for all rabbits, 5-7 days
Two bucket-fed veal calves are depressed and stunted and have sticky feces coating
their hindquarters. Fluid-splashing sounds are audible during auscultation over the left
flank when a calf is drinking.
Passage of a stomach tube obtains a rancid-smelling liquid with a pH of 5.2 [N=5.9-6.2]
Which one of the following choices is the most appropriate treatment?
A - Cull affected calves
B - Remove fermented rumen contents, flush with saline
C - Wean affected calves; Shift to bottle-feeding for well calves
D - Vitamin E/Selenium injections, plus dietary supplements
E - Inoculate rumen fluid from a healthy cow into calf by stomach tube - Answer- B -
Remove fermented rumen contents, flush with saline
This is the clinical picture of a ruminal drinker calf with chronic indigestion from milk
deposited directly into the rumen.
Treat by removing the fermented material and flushing the rumen with saline. Attempt to
induce gastric/reticular groove closure during feeding by inducing vigorous sucking
activity with a finger before feeding milk. If calves relapse, consider weaning.
