Test – WGU D120 OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT ACTUAL
EXAM STUDY GUIDE 2025/2026 COMPLETE
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
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1. What is the primary purpose of infection control practices?
A) To increase hospital revenue
B) To eliminate all microorganisms from the environment
C) To prevent the transmission of infectious diseases
D) To reduce the need for hand hygiene
Answer: C) To prevent the transmission of infectious diseases ✓
Rationale: The core goal of infection control is to break the chain of infection and prevent the
spread of pathogens from one person to another, not to achieve a completely sterile
environment, which is impossible in most healthcare settings.
2. The most effective way to prevent the spread of pathogens is:
A) Wearing a gown
B) Proper hand hygiene
C) Using disinfectant sprays
D) Wearing gloves
Answer: B) Proper hand hygiene ✓
Rationale: Hand hygiene, including handwashing with soap and water or using an alcohol-based
hand rub, is universally recognized as the single most important procedure for preventing the
transmission of healthcare-associated infections.
3. Which of the following is considered a portal of exit for an infectious agent?
A) Intact skin
B) Blood and body fluids
C) A sterile wound
D) Mucous membranes
,Answer: B) Blood and body fluids ✓
Rationale: Portals of exit are paths by which a pathogen leaves its reservoir. Blood, respiratory
secretions, and other body fluids are common portals of exit.
4. A patient diagnosed with Clostridium difficile (C. diff) should be placed on:
A) Droplet Precautions
B) Airborne Precautions
C) Contact Precautions
D) Standard Precautions only
Answer: C) Contact Precautions ✓
Rationale: C. diff spores are spread by direct and indirect contact with contaminated surfaces or
equipment. Contact Precautions, which include the use of gloves and gowns, are essential to
prevent transmission.
5. What type of precaution requires the use of an N95 respirator or higher?
A) Contact Precautions
B) Droplet Precautions
C) Airborne Precautions
D) Standard Precautions
Answer: C) Airborne Precautions ✓
Rationale: Airborne Precautions are for diseases transmitted by small droplet nuclei that remain
suspended in the air (e.g., tuberculosis, measles). An N95 respirator is designed to filter these
small particles.
6. Standard Precautions are based on the principle that:
A) All patients are potentially infectious.
B) Only patients with a diagnosed infection are infectious.
C) Precautions are only needed for blood draws.
D) Hand hygiene is not always necessary.
Answer: A) All patients are potentially infectious. ✓
Rationale: Standard Precautions are the minimum infection prevention practices that apply to
all patient care, regardless of suspected or confirmed infection status, to protect healthcare
workers and patients.
7. The proper sequence for donning (putting on) PPE is:
A) Gown, Mask, Gloves, Goggles
B) Gloves, Gown, Mask, Goggles
,C) Gown, Mask, Goggles, Gloves
D) Mask, Goggles, Gloves, Gown
Answer: C) Gown, Mask, Goggles, Gloves ✓
Rationale: This sequence ensures that the pieces of PPE that are considered "clean" (gown,
mask, goggles) are put on before the "dirty" item (gloves), which will have the most contact
with the patient and environment.
8. The proper sequence for doffing (taking off) PPE is:
A) Gloves, Goggles, Gown, Mask
B) Gown, Gloves, Goggles, Mask
C) Gloves, Gown, Goggles, Mask
D) Mask, Goggles, Gloves, Gown
Answer: A) Gloves, Goggles, Gown, Mask ✓
Rationale: This sequence is designed to prevent self-contamination. Gloves (most
contaminated) are removed first, followed by face protection, then the gown, and finally the
mask, which is handled by the ties.
9. An object that can harbor pathogenic microorganisms and serve as a source of transmission
is called a:
A) Vector
B) Fomite
C) Host
D) Carrier
Answer: B) Fomite ✓
Rationale: A fomite is an inanimate object (e.g., bed rails, a stethoscope, clothing) that can
become contaminated with pathogens and facilitate disease transmission.
10. Which of the following is the correct order for the chain of infection?
A) Infectious Agent, Reservoir, Portal of Exit, Mode of Transmission, Portal of Entry, Susceptible
Host
B) Reservoir, Infectious Agent, Mode of Transmission, Portal of Exit, Portal of Entry, Susceptible
Host
C) Infectious Agent, Susceptible Host, Reservoir, Portal of Exit, Mode of Transmission, Portal of
Entry
D) Susceptible Host, Portal of Entry, Mode of Transmission, Portal of Exit, Reservoir, Infectious
Agent
, Answer: A) Infectious Agent, Reservoir, Portal of Exit, Mode of Transmission, Portal of Entry,
Susceptible Host ✓
Rationale: This is the standard, sequential model describing how an infection spreads from a
source to a new host.
11. A patient with active tuberculosis would require which type of isolation room?
A) A positive pressure room
B) A negative pressure room
C) A room with a HEPA filter only
D) Any private room
Answer: B) A negative pressure room ✓
Rationale: Negative pressure rooms prevent contaminated air from flowing out into hallways
and other patient areas. They are essential for Airborne Precautions.
12. Which body fluid is NOT considered a potential source of bloodborne pathogens?
A) Sweat
B) Semen
C) Vaginal secretions
D) Cerebrospinal fluid
Answer: A) Sweat ✓
Rationale: Unless visibly contaminated with blood, sweat is not considered a carrier for
bloodborne pathogens like HIV, HBV, or HCV.
13. After a needlestick injury, the first action should be to:
A) Report to a supervisor
B) Complete an incident report
C) Clean the site with soap and water
D) Go to the emergency room
Answer: C) Clean the site with soap and water ✓
Rationale: Immediate first aid is crucial. Washing the wound with soap and water helps reduce
the viral load and the risk of infection. This should be done before reporting and seeking further
medical evaluation.
14. The primary purpose of the Bloodborne Pathogens Standard is to:
A) Eliminate all needlestick injuries
B) Protect workers from exposure to HIV and HBV
C) Provide free treatment to infected patients
D) Mandate vaccination for all employees