Pharmacology and Medication Administration Exam
Prep – WGU D120 OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT ACTUAL
EXAM STUDY GUIDE 2025/2026 COMPLETE
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
WITH RATIONALES || 100% GUARANTEED PASS
<LATEST VERSION>
WGU D120 Pharmacology & Medication Administration: 100-Question Practice Exam
1. What is the primary purpose of the "Rights of Medication Administration"?
A) To increase the efficiency of the nursing staff.
B) To provide a legal framework for pharmaceutical companies.
C) To prevent medication errors and ensure patient safety. ✓
D) To standardize medication costs across healthcare systems.
Rationale: The "Rights" (e.g., right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time) are a
systematic checklist for nurses to follow to minimize the risk of errors during the medication
administration process.
2. A patient is prescribed an enteric-coated tablet. The nurse understands that the purpose of
this coating is to:
A) Allow for sustained release of the medication over 12 hours.
B) Prevent the medication from being dissolved by stomach acid. ✓
C) Make the medication easier to swallow.
D) Ensure the medication is absorbed in the large intestine.
Rationale: Enteric coatings are designed to resist the acidic pH of the stomach, preventing
irritation and ensuring the tablet dissolves in the higher pH of the small intestine.
3. The first-pass effect significantly reduces the bioavailability of a medication administered
by which route?
A) Intravenous (IV)
B) Intramuscular (IM)
C) Sublingual
D) Oral ✓
Rationale: After oral administration, drugs are absorbed through the GI tract and travel directly
,to the liver via the portal vein, where they can be extensively metabolized before reaching the
systemic circulation.
4. A patient is started on a new drug that is highly protein-bound. What is a critical
consideration when another highly protein-bound drug is added to their regimen?
A) The new drug will be metabolized faster.
B) There is a risk of toxicity due to displacement, increasing the free fraction of one or both
drugs. ✓
C) The patient will require a higher dose of the original drug.
D) The drugs will neutralize each other's effects.
Rationale: When two highly protein-bound drugs compete for binding sites, one can displace
the other, leading to a sudden increase in the active, free drug in the bloodstream, potentially
causing toxicity.
5. The nurse is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection. Which action is correct?
A) Use a 22-gauge, 1.5-inch needle.
B) Aspirate for blood before injecting the medication.
C) Pinch the skin and inject at a 45- to 90-degree angle. ✓
D) Massage the site vigorously after injection.
Rationale: For subcutaneous injections, the skin is pinched to elevate the subcutaneous tissue,
and the needle is inserted at a 45-90 degree angle depending on the amount of subcutaneous
fat. Aspiration is not typically recommended for subcutaneous injections.
6. Which laboratory value is most critical to monitor for a patient receiving heparin?
A) Serum Creatinine
B) International Normalized Ratio (INR)
C) Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) ✓
D) Hemoglobin and Hematocrit
Rationale: aPTT is the primary test used to monitor the therapeutic effect of unfractionated
heparin. INR is used to monitor warfarin therapy.
7. A patient taking furosemide (Lasix) should be encouraged to consume foods rich in which
electrolyte?
A) Sodium
B) Calcium
C) Magnesium
D) Potassium ✓
Rationale: Loop diuretics like furosemide cause the loss of potassium in the urine, which can
lead to hypokalemia. Patients should be advised to eat potassium-rich foods like bananas,
oranges, and potatoes.
,8. What is the antidote for a heparin overdose?
A) Vitamin K
B) Naloxone (Narcan)
C) Protamine Sulfate ✓
D) Flumazenil (Romazicon)
Rationale: Protamine sulfate binds to heparin to form a stable, inactive complex, reversing its
anticoagulant effects.
9. The therapeutic index of a drug is a measure of:
A) Its potency.
B) Its safety margin. ✓
C) Its cost-effectiveness.
D) Its bioavailability.
Rationale: The Therapeutic Index (TI) is the ratio between the toxic dose and the therapeutic
dose (TD50/ED50). A high TI indicates a wide safety margin.
10. Which statement by a patient taking metoprolol (a beta-blocker) indicates a need for
further teaching?
A) "I will not stop taking this medicine abruptly."
B) "I will check my pulse daily and call my doctor if it is below 60."
C) "This medication will help control my high blood pressure."
D) "If I feel short of breath, I should take an extra dose." ✓
Rationale: Shortness of breath can be a sign of heart failure, a side effect of beta-blockers, or
bronchospasm (in susceptible patients). Taking an extra dose would be dangerous. The dose
should never be adjusted without consulting the provider.
11. A drug that acts as an agonist does which of the following?
A) Binds to a receptor and blocks a response.
B) Binds to a receptor and produces a response. ✓
C) Destroys receptor sites.
D) Enhances the metabolism of other drugs.
Rationale: An agonist mimics the body's natural chemicals by binding to receptors and initiating
a cellular response.
12. Which organ is primarily responsible for the metabolism of most drugs?
A) Kidneys
B) Liver ✓
C) Lungs
D) Spleen
, Rationale: The liver is the major site of drug metabolism (biotransformation), primarily through
the cytochrome P450 system.
13. A patient with myasthenia gravis is receiving pyridostigmine. The nurse would evaluate
the drug as effective if which of the following is observed?
A) Reduction in tremors.
B) Improved muscle strength. ✓
C) Decreased joint inflammation.
D) Relief of pain.
Rationale: Pyridostigmine is a cholinesterase inhibitor that increases acetylcholine levels at the
neuromuscular junction, improving muscle strength in patients with myasthenia gravis.
14. The nurse is administering an IV push medication. To minimize the risk of complications,
the nurse should:
A) Administer the medication as rapidly as possible.
B) Check for blood return and flush before and after administration. ✓
C) Use the same IV site for all medications.
D) Dilute the medication in a 500 mL bag of normal saline.
Rationale: Checking for blood return ensures the IV catheter is still in the vein (patency).
Flushing before administration prevents incompatibility with other medications, and flushing
after ensures the full dose is delivered.
15. Which class of medications is considered first-line for the treatment of uncomplicated
hypertension in many patients?
A) Thiazide Diuretics ✓
B) Beta-Blockers
C) ACE Inhibitors
D) Calcium Channel Blockers
Rationale: According to JNC-8 guidelines, thiazide diuretics, ACE inhibitors, ARBs, or calcium
channel blockers are all considered first-line. Thiazide diuretics are a very common and effective
first choice.
16. A patient is receiving digoxin. The nurse should assess for which signs and symptoms of
toxicity?
A) Hypertension and tachycardia.
B) Anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and visual disturbances (yellow halos). ✓
C) Hypoglycemia and diaphoresis.
D) Constipation and dry mouth.
Rationale: Digoxin toxicity commonly presents with GI symptoms (anorexia, nausea, vomiting),
Prep – WGU D120 OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT ACTUAL
EXAM STUDY GUIDE 2025/2026 COMPLETE
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
WITH RATIONALES || 100% GUARANTEED PASS
<LATEST VERSION>
WGU D120 Pharmacology & Medication Administration: 100-Question Practice Exam
1. What is the primary purpose of the "Rights of Medication Administration"?
A) To increase the efficiency of the nursing staff.
B) To provide a legal framework for pharmaceutical companies.
C) To prevent medication errors and ensure patient safety. ✓
D) To standardize medication costs across healthcare systems.
Rationale: The "Rights" (e.g., right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time) are a
systematic checklist for nurses to follow to minimize the risk of errors during the medication
administration process.
2. A patient is prescribed an enteric-coated tablet. The nurse understands that the purpose of
this coating is to:
A) Allow for sustained release of the medication over 12 hours.
B) Prevent the medication from being dissolved by stomach acid. ✓
C) Make the medication easier to swallow.
D) Ensure the medication is absorbed in the large intestine.
Rationale: Enteric coatings are designed to resist the acidic pH of the stomach, preventing
irritation and ensuring the tablet dissolves in the higher pH of the small intestine.
3. The first-pass effect significantly reduces the bioavailability of a medication administered
by which route?
A) Intravenous (IV)
B) Intramuscular (IM)
C) Sublingual
D) Oral ✓
Rationale: After oral administration, drugs are absorbed through the GI tract and travel directly
,to the liver via the portal vein, where they can be extensively metabolized before reaching the
systemic circulation.
4. A patient is started on a new drug that is highly protein-bound. What is a critical
consideration when another highly protein-bound drug is added to their regimen?
A) The new drug will be metabolized faster.
B) There is a risk of toxicity due to displacement, increasing the free fraction of one or both
drugs. ✓
C) The patient will require a higher dose of the original drug.
D) The drugs will neutralize each other's effects.
Rationale: When two highly protein-bound drugs compete for binding sites, one can displace
the other, leading to a sudden increase in the active, free drug in the bloodstream, potentially
causing toxicity.
5. The nurse is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection. Which action is correct?
A) Use a 22-gauge, 1.5-inch needle.
B) Aspirate for blood before injecting the medication.
C) Pinch the skin and inject at a 45- to 90-degree angle. ✓
D) Massage the site vigorously after injection.
Rationale: For subcutaneous injections, the skin is pinched to elevate the subcutaneous tissue,
and the needle is inserted at a 45-90 degree angle depending on the amount of subcutaneous
fat. Aspiration is not typically recommended for subcutaneous injections.
6. Which laboratory value is most critical to monitor for a patient receiving heparin?
A) Serum Creatinine
B) International Normalized Ratio (INR)
C) Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) ✓
D) Hemoglobin and Hematocrit
Rationale: aPTT is the primary test used to monitor the therapeutic effect of unfractionated
heparin. INR is used to monitor warfarin therapy.
7. A patient taking furosemide (Lasix) should be encouraged to consume foods rich in which
electrolyte?
A) Sodium
B) Calcium
C) Magnesium
D) Potassium ✓
Rationale: Loop diuretics like furosemide cause the loss of potassium in the urine, which can
lead to hypokalemia. Patients should be advised to eat potassium-rich foods like bananas,
oranges, and potatoes.
,8. What is the antidote for a heparin overdose?
A) Vitamin K
B) Naloxone (Narcan)
C) Protamine Sulfate ✓
D) Flumazenil (Romazicon)
Rationale: Protamine sulfate binds to heparin to form a stable, inactive complex, reversing its
anticoagulant effects.
9. The therapeutic index of a drug is a measure of:
A) Its potency.
B) Its safety margin. ✓
C) Its cost-effectiveness.
D) Its bioavailability.
Rationale: The Therapeutic Index (TI) is the ratio between the toxic dose and the therapeutic
dose (TD50/ED50). A high TI indicates a wide safety margin.
10. Which statement by a patient taking metoprolol (a beta-blocker) indicates a need for
further teaching?
A) "I will not stop taking this medicine abruptly."
B) "I will check my pulse daily and call my doctor if it is below 60."
C) "This medication will help control my high blood pressure."
D) "If I feel short of breath, I should take an extra dose." ✓
Rationale: Shortness of breath can be a sign of heart failure, a side effect of beta-blockers, or
bronchospasm (in susceptible patients). Taking an extra dose would be dangerous. The dose
should never be adjusted without consulting the provider.
11. A drug that acts as an agonist does which of the following?
A) Binds to a receptor and blocks a response.
B) Binds to a receptor and produces a response. ✓
C) Destroys receptor sites.
D) Enhances the metabolism of other drugs.
Rationale: An agonist mimics the body's natural chemicals by binding to receptors and initiating
a cellular response.
12. Which organ is primarily responsible for the metabolism of most drugs?
A) Kidneys
B) Liver ✓
C) Lungs
D) Spleen
, Rationale: The liver is the major site of drug metabolism (biotransformation), primarily through
the cytochrome P450 system.
13. A patient with myasthenia gravis is receiving pyridostigmine. The nurse would evaluate
the drug as effective if which of the following is observed?
A) Reduction in tremors.
B) Improved muscle strength. ✓
C) Decreased joint inflammation.
D) Relief of pain.
Rationale: Pyridostigmine is a cholinesterase inhibitor that increases acetylcholine levels at the
neuromuscular junction, improving muscle strength in patients with myasthenia gravis.
14. The nurse is administering an IV push medication. To minimize the risk of complications,
the nurse should:
A) Administer the medication as rapidly as possible.
B) Check for blood return and flush before and after administration. ✓
C) Use the same IV site for all medications.
D) Dilute the medication in a 500 mL bag of normal saline.
Rationale: Checking for blood return ensures the IV catheter is still in the vein (patency).
Flushing before administration prevents incompatibility with other medications, and flushing
after ensures the full dose is delivered.
15. Which class of medications is considered first-line for the treatment of uncomplicated
hypertension in many patients?
A) Thiazide Diuretics ✓
B) Beta-Blockers
C) ACE Inhibitors
D) Calcium Channel Blockers
Rationale: According to JNC-8 guidelines, thiazide diuretics, ACE inhibitors, ARBs, or calcium
channel blockers are all considered first-line. Thiazide diuretics are a very common and effective
first choice.
16. A patient is receiving digoxin. The nurse should assess for which signs and symptoms of
toxicity?
A) Hypertension and tachycardia.
B) Anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and visual disturbances (yellow halos). ✓
C) Hypoglycemia and diaphoresis.
D) Constipation and dry mouth.
Rationale: Digoxin toxicity commonly presents with GI symptoms (anorexia, nausea, vomiting),
