NUR-631 Advanced Health Assessment
Test 1 – D’Youville University — Master
Review & Preparation Guide 2025/2026
<Latest Version>
NUR-631 Advanced Health Assessment: Test 1 Master Review (100 Q&A)
Domain 1: Foundational Concepts & Health History
1. What is the primary purpose of a comprehensive health assessment?
A) To diagnose a specific disease.
B) To establish a database for clinical judgment.
C) To replace the need for diagnostic tests.
D) To quickly address a chief complaint.
✓ B) To establish a database for clinical judgment.
2. The "Review of Systems" (ROS) is primarily used to:
A) Confirm the provider's initial diagnosis.
B) Identify health problems that the patient has not yet mentioned.
C) Replace the physical examination.
D) Document only current, active symptoms.
✓ B) Identify health problems that the patient has not yet mentioned.
3. A patient's statement describing their reason for seeking care is documented as the:
A) Diagnosis.
B) Review of Systems.
C) Chief Complaint.
D) Past Medical History.
✓ C) Chief Complaint.
4. Which of the following is an example of a subjective data point?
A) Blood pressure reading of 150/90 mmHg.
B) A rash on the patient's forearm.
C) The patient reporting "I feel dizzy."
, D) Heart rate of 102 bpm.
✓ C) The patient reporting "I feel dizzy."
5. The mnemonic "OLDCARTS" is used to comprehensively assess which component of
the health history?
A) Past Medical History
B) Family History
C) The Chief Complaint
D) Social History
✓ C) The Chief Complaint
6. What does the "S" in the "OLDCARTS" mnemonic stand for?
A) Symptom
B) Severity
C) System
D) Sensation
✓ B) Severity
7. When a patient provides information about their habits, lifestyle, and living situation,
this is documented in the:
A) Family History.
B) Past Medical History.
C) Social History.
D) Review of Systems.
✓ C) Social History.
8. The concept of cultural humility in health assessment emphasizes:
A) Memorizing all cultural practices.
B) A lifelong process of self-reflection and recognition of power imbalances.
C) Assuming all members of a culture act the same.
D) Focusing only on biological factors.
✓ B) A lifelong process of self-reflection and recognition of power imbalances.
9. Which question is most open-ended and facilitates a narrative response from the
patient?
A) "Does the pain get worse when you cough?"
B) "Are you feeling okay today?"
C) "Tell me what brought you in today."
D) "You don't smoke, do you?"
✓ C) "Tell me what brought you in today."
, 10. Documenting a patient's allergies to medications and environmental factors is a critical
part of:
A) The Review of Systems.
B) The Past Medical History.
C) The Social History.
D) The Chief Complaint.
✓ B) The Past Medical History.
Domain 2: General Survey & Vital Signs
11. The General Survey begins:
A) When you start the physical exam.
B) The moment you first see the patient.
C) After you review the patient's chart.
D) When you measure the first vital sign.
✓ B) The moment you first see the patient.
12. Which component is NOT part of the General Survey?
A) Body habitus and posture.
B) Speech pattern and hygiene.
C) Auscultation of heart sounds.
D) Signs of distress.
✓ C) Auscultation of heart sounds.
13. A normal adult blood pressure reading, according to the AHA, is:
A) < 130/80 mmHg.
B) < 140/90 mmHg.
C) < 120/80 mmHg.
D) < 150/90 mmHg.
✓ C) < 120/80 mmHg.
14. Orthostatic hypotension is defined as a drop in systolic BP of ____ mm Hg or more, or
a drop in diastolic BP of ____ mm Hg or more upon standing.
A) 10, 10
B) 20, 10
C) 10, 5
D) 15, 15
✓ B) 20, 10
, 15. The point of maximal impulse (PMI) is typically located at the:
A) Right midclavicular line, 5th intercostal space.
B) Left midclavicular line, 5th intercostal space.
C) Left midclavicular line, 2nd intercostal space.
D) Right midclavicular line, 2nd intercostal space.
✓ B) Left midclavicular line, 5th intercostal space.
16. Korotkoff sounds are used to determine:
A) Heart rate.
B) Oxygen saturation.
C) Blood pressure.
D) Respiratory rate.
✓ C) Blood pressure.
17. The fifth Korotkoff sound represents:
A) The systolic pressure.
B) The first clear tapping sound.
C) The muffling of sound.
D) The disappearance of sound (diastolic pressure in adults).
✓ D) The disappearance of sound (diastolic pressure in adults).
18. A pulse deficit is identified when:
A) The apical pulse is less than the radial pulse.
B) The radial pulse is less than the apical pulse.
C) The pulse is irregular.
D) The pulse is thready.
✓ B) The radial pulse is less than the apical pulse.
19. A normal resting respiratory rate for a healthy adult is:
A) 8-12 breaths per minute.
B) 12-20 breaths per minute.
C) 20-30 breaths per minute.
D) 15-25 breaths per minute.
✓ B) 12-20 breaths per minute.
20. Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by:
A) Deep, rapid breathing.
B) Periods of apnea followed by progressively deeper, then shallower breathing.
C) Irregular, shallow breaths.
Test 1 – D’Youville University — Master
Review & Preparation Guide 2025/2026
<Latest Version>
NUR-631 Advanced Health Assessment: Test 1 Master Review (100 Q&A)
Domain 1: Foundational Concepts & Health History
1. What is the primary purpose of a comprehensive health assessment?
A) To diagnose a specific disease.
B) To establish a database for clinical judgment.
C) To replace the need for diagnostic tests.
D) To quickly address a chief complaint.
✓ B) To establish a database for clinical judgment.
2. The "Review of Systems" (ROS) is primarily used to:
A) Confirm the provider's initial diagnosis.
B) Identify health problems that the patient has not yet mentioned.
C) Replace the physical examination.
D) Document only current, active symptoms.
✓ B) Identify health problems that the patient has not yet mentioned.
3. A patient's statement describing their reason for seeking care is documented as the:
A) Diagnosis.
B) Review of Systems.
C) Chief Complaint.
D) Past Medical History.
✓ C) Chief Complaint.
4. Which of the following is an example of a subjective data point?
A) Blood pressure reading of 150/90 mmHg.
B) A rash on the patient's forearm.
C) The patient reporting "I feel dizzy."
, D) Heart rate of 102 bpm.
✓ C) The patient reporting "I feel dizzy."
5. The mnemonic "OLDCARTS" is used to comprehensively assess which component of
the health history?
A) Past Medical History
B) Family History
C) The Chief Complaint
D) Social History
✓ C) The Chief Complaint
6. What does the "S" in the "OLDCARTS" mnemonic stand for?
A) Symptom
B) Severity
C) System
D) Sensation
✓ B) Severity
7. When a patient provides information about their habits, lifestyle, and living situation,
this is documented in the:
A) Family History.
B) Past Medical History.
C) Social History.
D) Review of Systems.
✓ C) Social History.
8. The concept of cultural humility in health assessment emphasizes:
A) Memorizing all cultural practices.
B) A lifelong process of self-reflection and recognition of power imbalances.
C) Assuming all members of a culture act the same.
D) Focusing only on biological factors.
✓ B) A lifelong process of self-reflection and recognition of power imbalances.
9. Which question is most open-ended and facilitates a narrative response from the
patient?
A) "Does the pain get worse when you cough?"
B) "Are you feeling okay today?"
C) "Tell me what brought you in today."
D) "You don't smoke, do you?"
✓ C) "Tell me what brought you in today."
, 10. Documenting a patient's allergies to medications and environmental factors is a critical
part of:
A) The Review of Systems.
B) The Past Medical History.
C) The Social History.
D) The Chief Complaint.
✓ B) The Past Medical History.
Domain 2: General Survey & Vital Signs
11. The General Survey begins:
A) When you start the physical exam.
B) The moment you first see the patient.
C) After you review the patient's chart.
D) When you measure the first vital sign.
✓ B) The moment you first see the patient.
12. Which component is NOT part of the General Survey?
A) Body habitus and posture.
B) Speech pattern and hygiene.
C) Auscultation of heart sounds.
D) Signs of distress.
✓ C) Auscultation of heart sounds.
13. A normal adult blood pressure reading, according to the AHA, is:
A) < 130/80 mmHg.
B) < 140/90 mmHg.
C) < 120/80 mmHg.
D) < 150/90 mmHg.
✓ C) < 120/80 mmHg.
14. Orthostatic hypotension is defined as a drop in systolic BP of ____ mm Hg or more, or
a drop in diastolic BP of ____ mm Hg or more upon standing.
A) 10, 10
B) 20, 10
C) 10, 5
D) 15, 15
✓ B) 20, 10
, 15. The point of maximal impulse (PMI) is typically located at the:
A) Right midclavicular line, 5th intercostal space.
B) Left midclavicular line, 5th intercostal space.
C) Left midclavicular line, 2nd intercostal space.
D) Right midclavicular line, 2nd intercostal space.
✓ B) Left midclavicular line, 5th intercostal space.
16. Korotkoff sounds are used to determine:
A) Heart rate.
B) Oxygen saturation.
C) Blood pressure.
D) Respiratory rate.
✓ C) Blood pressure.
17. The fifth Korotkoff sound represents:
A) The systolic pressure.
B) The first clear tapping sound.
C) The muffling of sound.
D) The disappearance of sound (diastolic pressure in adults).
✓ D) The disappearance of sound (diastolic pressure in adults).
18. A pulse deficit is identified when:
A) The apical pulse is less than the radial pulse.
B) The radial pulse is less than the apical pulse.
C) The pulse is irregular.
D) The pulse is thready.
✓ B) The radial pulse is less than the apical pulse.
19. A normal resting respiratory rate for a healthy adult is:
A) 8-12 breaths per minute.
B) 12-20 breaths per minute.
C) 20-30 breaths per minute.
D) 15-25 breaths per minute.
✓ B) 12-20 breaths per minute.
20. Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by:
A) Deep, rapid breathing.
B) Periods of apnea followed by progressively deeper, then shallower breathing.
C) Irregular, shallow breaths.
