ATI Exams – Comprehensive Study Guide
2025/2026 | Updated Concepts, Practice
Review & Learning Support
1. A nurse is preparing to administer medication. What is the final step of the "Rights of
Medication Administration" that ensures the medication was administered correctly?
A. Right Documentation
B. Right Route
C. Right Patient
D. Right Dose
Answer: A ✓ - Documentation confirms the action and provides a legal record.
2. The use of restraints requires which of the following to ensure client safety?
A. A PRN (as-needed) order from the provider.
B. Renewing the restraint order every 24 hours.
C. Continuous visual monitoring.
D. Releasing the restraint for circulation every 4 hours.
Answer: C ✓ - Clients in restraints require continuous visual monitoring to prevent injury.
3. What is the priority action when a fire is discovered?
A. Extinguish the fire (use the fire extinguisher).
B. Activate the fire alarm.
C. Rescue/remove clients from immediate danger.
D. Confine the fire by closing doors.
Answer: C ✓ - The RACE acronym prioritizes Rescue first.
4. A client with Clostridioides difficile (C. diff) should be placed on:
A. Droplet Precautions
B. Contact Precautions
C. Airborne Precautions
D. Protective Environment
Answer: B ✓ - C. diff is spread by spores on contaminated surfaces, requiring Contact
Precautions.
5. The primary purpose of an incident report is to:
A. Assign blame for the incident.
B. Document the event for quality improvement and risk management.
,C. Place in the client's permanent medical record.
D. Notify the provider of a potential lawsuit.
Answer: B ✓ - It is a risk management tool, not for disciplinary action or the client's chart.
6. When delegating a task to an Unlicensed Assistive Personnel (UAP), the nurse is ultimately
responsible for:
A. The UAP's understanding of the procedure.
B. The supervision and outcome of the delegated task.
C. The UAP's job satisfaction.
D. Completing the task if the UAP is unavailable.
Answer: B ✓ - The nurse retains accountability for the delegation and the client's outcome.
7. A client is being discharged and needs teaching about a new medication. What is the best
way to evaluate the client's understanding?
A. Provide a detailed pamphlet.
B. Ask the client to explain the information back in their own words.
C. Ask, "Do you understand?"
D. Demonstrate the procedure once.
Answer: B ✓ - Teach-back is the most effective method to evaluate learning.
8. A client's advance directive indicates they do not wish to be resuscitated. The nurse
understands this is a:
A. Durable Power of Attorney
B. Living Will
C. Do-Not-Hospitalize (DNH) Order
D. Do-Not-Resuscitate (DNR) Order
Answer: D ✓ - A DNR order specifically addresses the refusal of CPR.
9. The first nursing action before any procedure is:
A. Explain the procedure to the client.
B. Gather the necessary equipment.
C. Perform hand hygiene.
D. Identify the client using two identifiers.
Answer: D ✓ - Client identification is the universal first step to ensure safety.
10. What is the most effective way to prevent the spread of infection?
A. Wearing gloves.
B. Hand hygiene.
C. Using disposable equipment.
,D. Wearing a gown.
Answer: B ✓ - Hand hygiene is the single most important practice.
11. A client is at risk for falls. Which intervention is most appropriate?
A. Restrain the client in a chair.
B. Use a bed alarm and place the client near the nurses' station.
C. Administer a sedative.
D. Ask the UAP to check on the client every 4 hours.
Answer: B ✓ - This is a least-restrictive, proactive safety measure.
12. A nurse discovers an error in a medication administration. What is the priority action?
A. Notify the nurse manager.
B. Document the error in the chart.
C. Assess the client's condition.
D. Call the provider.
Answer: C ✓ - The client's well-being is the immediate priority.
13. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. A client with diabetes requesting a snack.
B. A client 2 hours post-op with a respiratory rate of 8.
C. A client with a wound dressing that needs changing.
D. A client complaining of mild headache.
Answer: B ✓ - A respiratory rate of 8 indicates potential respiratory depression and is an
immediate threat to life (ABCs).
14. The ethical principle of "beneficence" refers to:
A. Respecting a client's right to make decisions.
B. Doing good and acting in the client's best interest.
C. Being fair and distributing resources equally.
D. Telling the truth.
Answer: B ✓ - Beneficence is the duty to promote good.
15. When communicating with a client who has a hearing impairment, the nurse should:
A. Speak loudly directly into the client's ear.
B. Speak slowly and clearly while facing the client.
C. Use complex medical terminology to be precise.
D. Communicate only through a family member.
Answer: B ✓ - This allows the client to see your lips and facial expressions.
, Pharmacology (15 Questions)
16. A client is prescribed an ACE Inhibitor (e.g., Lisinopril). The nurse should monitor for which
common side effect?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Bradycardia
D. Dry cough
Answer: D ✓ - A persistent dry cough is a classic, common side effect of ACE inhibitors.
17. The nurse administers Furosemide (Lasix) to a client. Which electrolyte imbalance is most
critical to monitor?
A. Sodium
B. Calcium
C. Potassium
D. Magnesium
Answer: C ✓ - Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, leading to hypokalemia.
18. When preparing to administer IV Potassium, it is essential to:
A. Administer it via IV push for rapid effect.
B. Dilute it properly and infuse it slowly.
C. Mix it with any compatible IV solution.
D. Give it without regard to other medications.
Answer: B ✓ - IV potassium must always be diluted and given slowly to prevent fatal cardiac
arrhythmias.
19. A client taking Warfarin (Coumadin) should be educated to limit intake of which food?
A. Dairy products
B. Green leafy vegetables
C. Citrus fruits
D. Red meat
Answer: B ✓ - Vitamin K (found in green leafy vegetables) antagonizes the effects of Warfarin.
20. Which finding in a client taking Digoxin (Lanoxin) should be reported immediately?
A. Heart rate of 68 bpm
B. Loss of appetite and nausea
C. Mild headache
D. +1 pedal edema
Answer: B ✓ - Anorexia, nausea, and vomiting are early signs of digoxin toxicity.
2025/2026 | Updated Concepts, Practice
Review & Learning Support
1. A nurse is preparing to administer medication. What is the final step of the "Rights of
Medication Administration" that ensures the medication was administered correctly?
A. Right Documentation
B. Right Route
C. Right Patient
D. Right Dose
Answer: A ✓ - Documentation confirms the action and provides a legal record.
2. The use of restraints requires which of the following to ensure client safety?
A. A PRN (as-needed) order from the provider.
B. Renewing the restraint order every 24 hours.
C. Continuous visual monitoring.
D. Releasing the restraint for circulation every 4 hours.
Answer: C ✓ - Clients in restraints require continuous visual monitoring to prevent injury.
3. What is the priority action when a fire is discovered?
A. Extinguish the fire (use the fire extinguisher).
B. Activate the fire alarm.
C. Rescue/remove clients from immediate danger.
D. Confine the fire by closing doors.
Answer: C ✓ - The RACE acronym prioritizes Rescue first.
4. A client with Clostridioides difficile (C. diff) should be placed on:
A. Droplet Precautions
B. Contact Precautions
C. Airborne Precautions
D. Protective Environment
Answer: B ✓ - C. diff is spread by spores on contaminated surfaces, requiring Contact
Precautions.
5. The primary purpose of an incident report is to:
A. Assign blame for the incident.
B. Document the event for quality improvement and risk management.
,C. Place in the client's permanent medical record.
D. Notify the provider of a potential lawsuit.
Answer: B ✓ - It is a risk management tool, not for disciplinary action or the client's chart.
6. When delegating a task to an Unlicensed Assistive Personnel (UAP), the nurse is ultimately
responsible for:
A. The UAP's understanding of the procedure.
B. The supervision and outcome of the delegated task.
C. The UAP's job satisfaction.
D. Completing the task if the UAP is unavailable.
Answer: B ✓ - The nurse retains accountability for the delegation and the client's outcome.
7. A client is being discharged and needs teaching about a new medication. What is the best
way to evaluate the client's understanding?
A. Provide a detailed pamphlet.
B. Ask the client to explain the information back in their own words.
C. Ask, "Do you understand?"
D. Demonstrate the procedure once.
Answer: B ✓ - Teach-back is the most effective method to evaluate learning.
8. A client's advance directive indicates they do not wish to be resuscitated. The nurse
understands this is a:
A. Durable Power of Attorney
B. Living Will
C. Do-Not-Hospitalize (DNH) Order
D. Do-Not-Resuscitate (DNR) Order
Answer: D ✓ - A DNR order specifically addresses the refusal of CPR.
9. The first nursing action before any procedure is:
A. Explain the procedure to the client.
B. Gather the necessary equipment.
C. Perform hand hygiene.
D. Identify the client using two identifiers.
Answer: D ✓ - Client identification is the universal first step to ensure safety.
10. What is the most effective way to prevent the spread of infection?
A. Wearing gloves.
B. Hand hygiene.
C. Using disposable equipment.
,D. Wearing a gown.
Answer: B ✓ - Hand hygiene is the single most important practice.
11. A client is at risk for falls. Which intervention is most appropriate?
A. Restrain the client in a chair.
B. Use a bed alarm and place the client near the nurses' station.
C. Administer a sedative.
D. Ask the UAP to check on the client every 4 hours.
Answer: B ✓ - This is a least-restrictive, proactive safety measure.
12. A nurse discovers an error in a medication administration. What is the priority action?
A. Notify the nurse manager.
B. Document the error in the chart.
C. Assess the client's condition.
D. Call the provider.
Answer: C ✓ - The client's well-being is the immediate priority.
13. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. A client with diabetes requesting a snack.
B. A client 2 hours post-op with a respiratory rate of 8.
C. A client with a wound dressing that needs changing.
D. A client complaining of mild headache.
Answer: B ✓ - A respiratory rate of 8 indicates potential respiratory depression and is an
immediate threat to life (ABCs).
14. The ethical principle of "beneficence" refers to:
A. Respecting a client's right to make decisions.
B. Doing good and acting in the client's best interest.
C. Being fair and distributing resources equally.
D. Telling the truth.
Answer: B ✓ - Beneficence is the duty to promote good.
15. When communicating with a client who has a hearing impairment, the nurse should:
A. Speak loudly directly into the client's ear.
B. Speak slowly and clearly while facing the client.
C. Use complex medical terminology to be precise.
D. Communicate only through a family member.
Answer: B ✓ - This allows the client to see your lips and facial expressions.
, Pharmacology (15 Questions)
16. A client is prescribed an ACE Inhibitor (e.g., Lisinopril). The nurse should monitor for which
common side effect?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Bradycardia
D. Dry cough
Answer: D ✓ - A persistent dry cough is a classic, common side effect of ACE inhibitors.
17. The nurse administers Furosemide (Lasix) to a client. Which electrolyte imbalance is most
critical to monitor?
A. Sodium
B. Calcium
C. Potassium
D. Magnesium
Answer: C ✓ - Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, leading to hypokalemia.
18. When preparing to administer IV Potassium, it is essential to:
A. Administer it via IV push for rapid effect.
B. Dilute it properly and infuse it slowly.
C. Mix it with any compatible IV solution.
D. Give it without regard to other medications.
Answer: B ✓ - IV potassium must always be diluted and given slowly to prevent fatal cardiac
arrhythmias.
19. A client taking Warfarin (Coumadin) should be educated to limit intake of which food?
A. Dairy products
B. Green leafy vegetables
C. Citrus fruits
D. Red meat
Answer: B ✓ - Vitamin K (found in green leafy vegetables) antagonizes the effects of Warfarin.
20. Which finding in a client taking Digoxin (Lanoxin) should be reported immediately?
A. Heart rate of 68 bpm
B. Loss of appetite and nausea
C. Mild headache
D. +1 pedal edema
Answer: B ✓ - Anorexia, nausea, and vomiting are early signs of digoxin toxicity.
