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EMT Practice Exam Questions And Correct Answers (Verified Answers) Plus Rationales 2025/2026 Q&A | Instant Download Pdf

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1. The primary purpose of the primary assessment is to: A) Determine the patient’s past medical history B) Identify life-threatening conditions ** C) Complete a detailed physical exam D) Obtain vital signs The primary assessment focuses on identifying and addressing immediate life threats, such as airway, breathing, and circulation issues. 2. Which of the following is the correct sequence for airway, breathing, and circulation assessment? A) Circulation → Airway → Breathing B) Airway → Breathing → Circulation ** C) Breathing → Circulation → Airway D) Airway → Circulation → Breathing The ABC sequence ensures that airway is secured first, then breathing, then circulation, which is critical for patient survival. 3. A patient has a weak, thready pulse and pale, cool skin. This

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EMT Practice Exam Questions And
Correct Answers (Verified Answers)
Plus Rationales 2025/2026 Q&A |
Instant Download Pdf
1. The primary purpose of the primary assessment is to:
A) Determine the patient’s past medical history
B) Identify life-threatening conditions **
C) Complete a detailed physical exam
D) Obtain vital signs
The primary assessment focuses on identifying and addressing
immediate life threats, such as airway, breathing, and circulation
issues.


2. Which of the following is the correct sequence for airway,
breathing, and circulation assessment?
A) Circulation → Airway → Breathing
B) Airway → Breathing → Circulation **
C) Breathing → Circulation → Airway
D) Airway → Circulation → Breathing
The ABC sequence ensures that airway is secured first, then
breathing, then circulation, which is critical for patient survival.


3. A patient has a weak, thready pulse and pale, cool skin. This
indicates:

,A) Hypothermia
B) Shock **
C) Stroke
D) Seizure
Weak pulse and cool, pale skin are classic signs of hypoperfusion
(shock), which requires immediate intervention.


4. During a secondary assessment, which of the following should be
assessed first?
A) Head-to-toe physical exam
B) Vital signs **
C) SAMPLE history
D) ECG monitoring
After stabilizing life threats in the primary assessment, EMTs obtain
vital signs to further assess the patient’s status.


5. The proper compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR with 1
rescuer is:
A) 15:2
B) 30:2 **
C) 5:1
D) 25:2
Current guidelines recommend 30 compressions to 2 ventilations for
adult single-rescuer CPR to maximize perfusion.


6. Which of the following is the best method for opening the airway
of an unresponsive trauma patient?

,A) Head-tilt, chin-lift
B) Jaw-thrust **
C) Oropharyngeal airway insertion only
D) Suction only
In trauma patients, a jaw-thrust maneuver minimizes cervical spine
movement while opening the airway.


7. You are ventilating an adult patient with a bag-valve mask at a
rate of 20 breaths per minute. What is the potential complication?
A) Hyperventilation **
B) Hypoxia
C) Pulmonary embolism
D) Bradycardia
Excessive ventilation can cause hyperventilation, decreasing cardiac
output and oxygen delivery.


8. The first step in treating a patient with an epistaxis (nosebleed) is
to:
A) Tilt the head back
B) Pinch the soft part of the nose **
C) Insert gauze deep into the nostrils
D) Apply a cold pack to the forehead
Pinching the soft part of the nose and leaning forward helps control
bleeding while preventing blood aspiration.


9. A patient is experiencing anaphylaxis. Which intervention is
priority?

, A) Oxygen therapy
B) Epinephrine administration **
C) IV fluids
D) Antihistamines
Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis because it
rapidly reverses airway swelling and hypotension.


10. Which of the following signs is indicative of hypoglycemia in a
diabetic patient?
A) Hot, dry skin
B) Rapid breathing
C) Confusion and diaphoresis **
D) Hypertension
Low blood sugar typically causes neurological symptoms like
confusion, irritability, and diaphoresis (sweating).


11. What is the proper depth of chest compressions in adult CPR?
A) 1 inch
B) 2 inches **
C) 3 inches
D) ½ inch
Effective compressions require approximately 2 inches (5 cm) of
depth to generate adequate blood flow.


12. When should an EMT use a nasopharyngeal airway?
A) Unresponsive patient with gag reflex **
B) Conscious patient without gag reflex
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