Anatomy & Physiology
11th Edition Exam Bank:
Detailed Rationales and
Physiological Analysis
Introduction to the Examination Scope and
Pedagogical Framework
This comprehensive examination bank is meticulously designed to align with the rigorous
pedagogical framework of Human Anatomy & Physiology, 11th Edition, by Elaine N. Marieb and
Katja Hoehn. As a cornerstone text in health science education, this edition emphasizes the
"complementarity of structure and function"—the foundational axiom that a structure’s
physiological capabilities are dictated by its specific anatomical form. This report serves not
merely as a collection of questions and answers, but as a deep-dive educational resource. It
provides a rigorous assessment comprising 66 high-yield questions derived from all 29 chapters
of the textbook, organized by the standard unit structure.
The analysis provided herein transcends simple answer keys. For each question, a detailed
physiological breakdown is offered, dissecting the correct answer and rigorously analyzing the
distractors. This approach mirrors the textbook's emphasis on "Big Picture" concepts and
clinical reasoning, ensuring that the learner understands not just the what, but the why and how
of human physiology. By integrating complex mechanisms—such as the sliding filament theory,
renal countercurrent multiplication, and basal ganglia circuitry—into the rationales, this
document functions as a bridge between theoretical knowledge and clinical application. The
content is organized to guide the learner from the chemical level of organization through to the
complex interactions of organ systems and human continuity.
Unit 1: Organization of the Body (Chapters 1–4)
This unit establishes the lexicon of anatomy and the chemical and cellular basis of life. It moves
from the orientation of the human body to the chemistry that sustains it, and finally to the cellular
and tissue levels that form the "living fabric" of the organism.
,Question 1: Homeostatic Control Mechanisms
Question: In the context of homeostatic regulation, which of the following scenarios best
illustrates a negative feedback mechanism? A. Platelet aggregation at a site of vessel injury
releasing chemicals to attract more platelets. B. Uterine contractions during labor stimulating the
release of oxytocin, which intensifies contractions. C. An increase in body temperature
triggering vasodilation and sweating to lower temperature. D. The rapid rise of the action
potential during the depolarization phase of a neuron.
Answer: C. An increase in body temperature triggering vasodilation and sweating to lower
temperature.
Detailed Rationale: Homeostasis is defined as the maintenance of relatively stable internal
conditions despite continuous changes in the environment. The vast majority of homeostatic
control mechanisms in the human body function via negative feedback loops. In these systems,
the output shuts off the original effect of the stimulus or reduces its intensity, guiding the variable
back toward a set point. In the scenario of thermoregulation, the stimulus is hyperthermia
(increased body temperature). Specialized thermoreceptors in the skin and brain detect this
deviation and signal the hypothalamus, which acts as the control center. The hypothalamus
processes this input and sends efferent signals to effectors: sweat glands are stimulated to
secrete sweat for evaporative cooling, and cutaneous blood vessels are signaled to dilate
(vasodilation), promoting heat loss via radiation. As body temperature falls, the stimulus to the
sensors decreases, and the cooling mechanisms are turned off. This self-terminating loop is the
hallmark of negative feedback.
Distractor Analysis: Option A is incorrect because platelet aggregation is a classic example of
positive feedback; the chemicals released by the initial platelets recruit more platelets to the
site, amplifying the response to rapidly seal a vessel. Similarly, Option B describes a positive
feedback loop where mechanical pressure on the cervix stimulates oxytocin release, which
causes stronger contractions, leading to increased pressure, continuing until the stimulus (the
fetus) is removed. Option D refers to the Hodgkin cycle of voltage-gated sodium channels
during an action potential, which is a localized positive feedback event necessary for signal
propagation, not a homeostatic maintenance mechanism.
Question 2: Chemical Bonding and Protein Structure
Question: Which type of chemical bond is primarily responsible for stabilizing the secondary
structure (alpha-helices and beta-pleated sheets) of proteins? A. Ionic bonds B. Hydrogen
bonds C. Disulfide bridges D. Nonpolar covalent bonds
Answer: B. Hydrogen bonds
Detailed Rationale: The structural integrity of proteins is fundamental to physiology, dictating
function in enzymes, receptors, and structural components. Protein structure is organized into
four levels. The secondary structure, which manifests as coiled \alpha-helices or sheet-like
\beta-pleated sheets, is stabilized exclusively by hydrogen bonds. These bonds form between
the electropositive hydrogen atom of the amine group and the electronegative oxygen atom of
the carbonyl group within the peptide backbone itself. Although individual hydrogen bonds are
weak, the cumulative effect of hundreds or thousands of them along the polypeptide chain
provides significant stability to these folded shapes. This is distinct from tertiary structure, which
involves interactions between the variable R-groups (side chains).
Distractor Analysis: Option A is incorrect because ionic bonds (electrostatic interactions) occur
, between charged acidic and basic R-groups and contribute to tertiary and quaternary structures,
not the backbone stabilization of secondary structure. Option C is incorrect because disulfide
bridges are strong covalent bonds between sulfur atoms in cysteine residues; they are critical
for "locking in" the tertiary structure but do not drive the initial folding of secondary structure.
Option D is incorrect because nonpolar covalent bonds form the peptide bonds connecting
amino acids (primary structure) but are not the stabilizing force for the folding patterns of the
secondary structure.
Question 3: Membrane Transport Physiology
Question: A red blood cell is placed into a solution containing a high concentration of a
non-penetrating solute. Which of the following correctly describes the tonicity of the solution and
the subsequent net movement of water? A. The solution is hypotonic; water moves into the cell,
causing lysis. B. The solution is isotonic; there is no net movement of water. C. The solution is
hypertonic; water moves out of the cell, causing crenation. D. The solution is hypertonic; solute
moves into the cell, causing swelling.
Answer: C. The solution is hypertonic; water moves out of the cell, causing crenation.
Detailed Rationale: Cellular physiology relies heavily on membrane transport dynamics to
maintain volume and function. Tonicity refers to the ability of a solution to alter the shape or tone
of cells by changing their internal water volume, and it is determined solely by the concentration
of non-penetrating solutes (solutes that cannot cross the plasma membrane). If a solution has a
higher concentration of non-penetrating solutes than the cytosol of the cell, it is defined as
hypertonic. Because the solutes cannot cross the plasma membrane to reach equilibrium, water
acts as the equalizer. Water moves via osmosis from the area of lower solute concentration
(high water concentration, inside the cell) to the area of higher solute concentration (low water
concentration, the solution). This efflux of water causes the red blood cell to lose volume and
shrivel, a pathological process clinically referred to as crenation.
Distractor Analysis: Option A is incorrect because a hypotonic solution has a lower
concentration of solutes than the cell, which would drive water into the cell, leading to swelling
and potential lysis (bursting). This concept is crucial in clinical settings involving IV therapy.
Option B is incorrect because isotonic solutions (e.g., 0.9% saline) have the same concentration
of non-penetrating solutes as cells, resulting in zero net movement of water. Option D is
incorrect because tonicity is defined by non-penetrating solutes; if the solute could move into the
cell, it would abolish the osmotic gradient, and water would eventually follow the solute, causing
swelling rather than crenation.
Question 4: Epithelial Tissue Classification
Question: Which epithelial tissue type is best adapted for the rapid diffusion of gases and is
found lining the alveoli of the lungs? A. Simple cuboidal epithelium B. Stratified squamous
epithelium C. Simple squamous epithelium D. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium
Answer: C. Simple squamous epithelium
Detailed Rationale: Histology, the study of tissues, reveals that form strictly follows function.
Epithelial tissues are classified by cell shape and the number of layers. Simple squamous
epithelium consists of a single layer of flattened, scale-like cells with sparse cytoplasm. This
extreme thinness minimizes the diffusion distance, making it the ideal tissue for filtration and
rapid exchange of substances. In the respiratory system, the air-blood barrier must be as thin as
possible to facilitate the efficient diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide; consequently, the