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Test Bank ATI Pharm CMS Comprehensive Exam 2026 – Questions And correct Answers solutions (1).pdf

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Test Bank ATI Pharm CMS Comprehensive Exam 2026 – Questions And
correct Answers solutions




1. A patient is prescribed furosemide 40 mg PO daily. Which electrolyte imbalance should
the nurse monitor for?​


A. Hyperkalemia​
B. Hypokalemia ​
C. Hypernatremia​
D. Hypocalcemia

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that increases potassium excretion, leading to
hypokalemia.



2. A patient is receiving warfarin. Which lab value should the nurse monitor to assess
effectiveness?​


A. aPTT​
B. INR ​
C. Platelet count​
D. Hematocrit

Rationale: Warfarin therapy is monitored using the International Normalized Ratio (INR) to
ensure therapeutic anticoagulation.





3. Which medication is contraindicated in patients with asthma?​
A. Metoprolol ​
B. Lisinopril​
C. Hydrochlorothiazide​
D. Digoxin

Rationale: Non-selective beta-blockers (like metoprolol in high doses) may cause
bronchoconstriction in asthma patients.



4. A patient develops a rash after starting amoxicillin. What is the priority nursing action?​
A. Document the rash​

, ✅​
B. Continue medication​
C. Discontinue medication and notify provider
D. Apply topical cream

Rationale: A rash may indicate an allergic reaction; immediate discontinuation and provider
notification are necessary.





5. A patient is prescribed digoxin. Which symptom indicates digoxin toxicity?​
A. Bradycardia ​
B. Hypertension​
C. Increased appetite​
D. Diaphoresis

Rationale: Digoxin toxicity commonly presents with bradycardia, nausea, vomiting, and visual
changes (e.g., yellow-green halos).



6. A patient with chronic kidney disease is prescribed erythropoietin. What is the primary
nursing consideration?​


A. Monitor potassium​
B. Monitor hemoglobin and hematocrit ​
C. Assess liver function​
D. Administer with food

Rationale: Erythropoietin stimulates RBC production; hemoglobin and hematocrit must be
monitored to prevent polycythemia.





7. Which drug class is most likely to cause a persistent dry cough?​
A. ACE inhibitors ​
B. ARBs​
C. Beta-blockers​
D. Calcium channel blockers

Rationale: ACE inhibitors can cause a persistent dry cough due to bradykinin accumulation.



8. A patient taking metformin should be instructed to monitor for:​


A. Hypoglycemia​
B. Lactic acidosis ​

, C. Hyperkalemia​
D. Hypertension

Rationale: Metformin rarely causes hypoglycemia but may increase the risk of lactic acidosis,
especially in renal impairment.



9. Which medication is used to treat hyperthyroidism?​


A. Levothyroxine​
B. Methimazole ​


C. Propylthiouracil​
D. Both B and C

Rationale: Methimazole and propylthiouracil inhibit thyroid hormone synthesis and are used to
manage hyperthyroidism.





10. A patient is prescribed a statin. Which lab should be monitored regularly?​
A. Liver function tests ​
B. Renal function​
C. CBC​
D. Coagulation profile

Rationale: Statins can cause hepatotoxicity; liver function tests should be monitored.



11. Which medication should be held if a patient’s heart rate is <60 bpm?​


A. Lisinopril​
B. Metoprolol ​
C. Furosemide​
D. Warfarin

Rationale: Beta-blockers can cause bradycardia; administration should be withheld if HR <60
bpm.



12. A patient on heparin therapy develops platelets 90,000/mm³. What should the nurse
do?​


A. Continue heparin​
B. Discontinue heparin and notify provider ​
C. Increase heparin dose​
D. Give vitamin K
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