FORTIS PN MATERNITY HESI PRACTICE EXAM — 2025/2026
UPDATED STUDY GUIDE & PRACTICE QUESTIONS | CORRECT
ANSWERS | ALREADY GRADED A+ | 100% VERIFIED
Practical Nursing Maternity Concepts | Key Domains: Antenatal Assessment, High-Risk
Pregnancy, Labor & Delivery, Fetal Monitoring, Postpartum Care, Newborn Adaptation,
Maternal–Newborn Safety, Complication Recognition, and Priority Interventions |
Expert-Verified Format & Structure | Exam-Ready
Introduction
This 2025–2026 Fortis PN Maternity HESI Exam layout provides the complete structure for
generating maternity-focused PN questions with fully validated answers. It encompasses
essential perinatal concepts, maternal–fetal safety, priority-based nursing decisions, and
evidence-aligned maternity care standards. All exam content created with this format supports
accurate clinical reasoning and consistent mastery-level performance.
Answer Format
All correct answers appear in bold, accompanied by concise rationales that reinforce safe
maternity nursing practice, clarify clinical decision-making, and explain why alternative
responses are less appropriate.
DOMAIN 1 – ANTENATAL ASSESSMENT & NORMAL PREGNANCY (Questions
1–20)
1. A client at 28 weeks gestation reports painless vaginal bleeding. Which action should the
PN take FIRST?
A. Perform a vaginal exam
B. Place the client on bedrest and apply continuous fetal monitoring
C. Give oral fluids
D. Send client home with instructions
Rationale: Painless bleeding at 28 weeks is classic for placenta previa; vaginal exam is
contraindicated until previa is ruled out.
2. A primigravida asks when she will first feel fetal movement. The PN correctly responds:
A. 8–10 weeks
B. 18–20 weeks
C. 24–26 weeks
D. 30 weeks
Rationale: Quickening is typically felt at 18–20 weeks in first pregnancies; earlier in
multiparas (14–18 weeks).
3. Which finding is expected during a normal 12-week prenatal visit?
A. Fetal heart rate 160 bpm via Doppler
B. Fundal height at the symphysis pubis
, C. Positive serum β-hCG (already known)
D. Fetal movement felt by examiner
Rationale: At 12 weeks the uterus is just palpable above the symphysis; FHR may be
heard but fundal height is the landmark.
4. A client’s LMP was 15 March 2025. Using Nägele’s rule, EDD is:
A. 22 December 2025
B. 22 December 2025
C. 15 January 2026
D. 8 November 2025
Rationale: Nägele’s rule: +9 months +7 days (15 March → 22 December).
5. A client at 16 weeks asks about the quad screen. The PN explains it screens for:
A. Gestational diabetes
B. Trisomy 21, Trisomy 18, and neural-tube defects
C. Placental abruption
D. Preterm labor risk
Rationale: Quad screen (AFP, hCG, unconjugated estriol, inhibin-A) assesses risk for
chromosomal and NTDs.
6. Which symptom reported at 20 weeks requires immediate physician notification?
A. Heartburn after meals
B. Sudden onset of facial swelling and headache
C. Backache with prolonged standing
D. Increased vaginal discharge
Rationale: Facial swelling + headache are red flags for preeclampsia; requires prompt
evaluation.
7. A client’s 1-hour GTT result is 140 mg/dL. PN teaching:
A. “You have gestational diabetes.”
B. “You will need a 3-hour glucose tolerance test for confirmation.”
C. “Avoid all sugars.”
D. “Start insulin tonight.”
Rationale: 1-hour GTT ≥ 140 mg/dL (some labs ≥ 135) mandates the 3-hour diagnostic
test.
8. At 36 weeks, fundal height measures 32 cm. PN priority:
A. Reassure client
B. Schedule ultrasound for fetal growth and amniotic fluid assessment
C. Increase oral fluids
D. Begin kick counts
Rationale: > 2 cm discrepancy warrants ultrasound to rule out growth restriction or
oligohydramnios.
9. Which immunization is safe during pregnancy?
A. MMR
B. Influenza (inactivated)
C. Varicella
D. HPV live-attenuated
Rationale: Inactivated influenza vaccine is recommended in any trimester; live
vaccines are contraindicated.
UPDATED STUDY GUIDE & PRACTICE QUESTIONS | CORRECT
ANSWERS | ALREADY GRADED A+ | 100% VERIFIED
Practical Nursing Maternity Concepts | Key Domains: Antenatal Assessment, High-Risk
Pregnancy, Labor & Delivery, Fetal Monitoring, Postpartum Care, Newborn Adaptation,
Maternal–Newborn Safety, Complication Recognition, and Priority Interventions |
Expert-Verified Format & Structure | Exam-Ready
Introduction
This 2025–2026 Fortis PN Maternity HESI Exam layout provides the complete structure for
generating maternity-focused PN questions with fully validated answers. It encompasses
essential perinatal concepts, maternal–fetal safety, priority-based nursing decisions, and
evidence-aligned maternity care standards. All exam content created with this format supports
accurate clinical reasoning and consistent mastery-level performance.
Answer Format
All correct answers appear in bold, accompanied by concise rationales that reinforce safe
maternity nursing practice, clarify clinical decision-making, and explain why alternative
responses are less appropriate.
DOMAIN 1 – ANTENATAL ASSESSMENT & NORMAL PREGNANCY (Questions
1–20)
1. A client at 28 weeks gestation reports painless vaginal bleeding. Which action should the
PN take FIRST?
A. Perform a vaginal exam
B. Place the client on bedrest and apply continuous fetal monitoring
C. Give oral fluids
D. Send client home with instructions
Rationale: Painless bleeding at 28 weeks is classic for placenta previa; vaginal exam is
contraindicated until previa is ruled out.
2. A primigravida asks when she will first feel fetal movement. The PN correctly responds:
A. 8–10 weeks
B. 18–20 weeks
C. 24–26 weeks
D. 30 weeks
Rationale: Quickening is typically felt at 18–20 weeks in first pregnancies; earlier in
multiparas (14–18 weeks).
3. Which finding is expected during a normal 12-week prenatal visit?
A. Fetal heart rate 160 bpm via Doppler
B. Fundal height at the symphysis pubis
, C. Positive serum β-hCG (already known)
D. Fetal movement felt by examiner
Rationale: At 12 weeks the uterus is just palpable above the symphysis; FHR may be
heard but fundal height is the landmark.
4. A client’s LMP was 15 March 2025. Using Nägele’s rule, EDD is:
A. 22 December 2025
B. 22 December 2025
C. 15 January 2026
D. 8 November 2025
Rationale: Nägele’s rule: +9 months +7 days (15 March → 22 December).
5. A client at 16 weeks asks about the quad screen. The PN explains it screens for:
A. Gestational diabetes
B. Trisomy 21, Trisomy 18, and neural-tube defects
C. Placental abruption
D. Preterm labor risk
Rationale: Quad screen (AFP, hCG, unconjugated estriol, inhibin-A) assesses risk for
chromosomal and NTDs.
6. Which symptom reported at 20 weeks requires immediate physician notification?
A. Heartburn after meals
B. Sudden onset of facial swelling and headache
C. Backache with prolonged standing
D. Increased vaginal discharge
Rationale: Facial swelling + headache are red flags for preeclampsia; requires prompt
evaluation.
7. A client’s 1-hour GTT result is 140 mg/dL. PN teaching:
A. “You have gestational diabetes.”
B. “You will need a 3-hour glucose tolerance test for confirmation.”
C. “Avoid all sugars.”
D. “Start insulin tonight.”
Rationale: 1-hour GTT ≥ 140 mg/dL (some labs ≥ 135) mandates the 3-hour diagnostic
test.
8. At 36 weeks, fundal height measures 32 cm. PN priority:
A. Reassure client
B. Schedule ultrasound for fetal growth and amniotic fluid assessment
C. Increase oral fluids
D. Begin kick counts
Rationale: > 2 cm discrepancy warrants ultrasound to rule out growth restriction or
oligohydramnios.
9. Which immunization is safe during pregnancy?
A. MMR
B. Influenza (inactivated)
C. Varicella
D. HPV live-attenuated
Rationale: Inactivated influenza vaccine is recommended in any trimester; live
vaccines are contraindicated.
