ATLS 10th Edition Post-Test Exam PRACTICE
3. In the primary survey, what is the correct order of assessment?
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
A) Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure
2025 (VERIFIED ANSWERS) LATEST UPDATE B) Circulation, Airway, Breathing, Exposure, Disability
C) Breathing, Airway, Circulation, Disability, Exposure
D) Disability, Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Exposure
Answer: A) Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure
Rationale: The ABCDE approach prioritizes life-threatening issues first.
4. What is the definitive treatment for a tension pneumothorax?
1. What is the first step in the primary survey of a trauma patient?
A) Needle decompression followed by chest tube insertion
A) Airway assessment with cervical spine protection B) Immediate intubation
B) Breathing assessment C) Administration of high-flow oxygen
C) Circulation assessment D) Observation and serial chest x-rays
D) Disability evaluation
Answer: A) Needle decompression followed by chest tube insertion
Answer: A) Airway assessment with cervical spine protection
Rationale: Needle decompression relieves the pressure, and chest tube placement
Rationale: The primary survey follows the ABCDE approach, starting with airway definitively treats the pneumothorax.
management and ensuring cervical spine protection to prevent further injury.
5. Which of the following is an indication for immediate thoracotomy in trauma
2. Which of the following is the most common cause of preventable death in patients?
trauma patients?
A) Stable patient with hemothorax on chest x-ray
A) Airway obstruction B) Cardiac arrest with witnessed penetrating chest trauma
B) Tension pneumothorax C) Mild rib fractures with no respiratory distress
C) Hemorrhage D) Open fracture of the femur
D) Traumatic brain injury
Answer: B) Cardiac arrest with witnessed penetrating chest trauma
Answer: A) Airway obstruction
Rationale: Emergency thoracotomy is indicated in witnessed cardiac arrest from
Rationale: Airway obstruction is the most common cause of preventable death penetrating chest trauma to control hemorrhage or cardiac tamponade.
and must be recognized and treated immediately.
,6. What is the “lethal triad” in trauma patients? 9. What is the best method to assess circulation during the primary survey?
A) Hypothermia, acidosis, and coagulopathy A) Measuring blood pressure alone
B) Hypotension, hypoxia, and hyperthermia B) Checking pulses, capillary refill, and skin color
C) Bradycardia, hypotension, and hypoxia C) Doing an echocardiogram
D) Acidosis, hyperthermia, and anemia D) Counting respiratory rate
Answer: A) Hypothermia, acidosis, and coagulopathy Answer: B) Checking pulses, capillary refill, and skin color
Rationale: The lethal triad worsens trauma outcomes and must be prevented or Rationale: These clinical signs give a rapid bedside assessment of perfusion.
corrected early.
10. In trauma, Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is used to assess:
7. Which injury is most likely if a patient has abdominal tenderness with a
A) Airway patency
seatbelt sign?
B) Level of consciousness
A) Small bowel injury C) Blood pressure
B) Kidney contusion D) Respiratory rate
C) Liver laceration
Answer: B) Level of consciousness
D) Bladder rupture
Rationale: GCS scores neurological status, guiding the assessment of head injury
Answer: A) Small bowel injury
severity.
Rationale: The seatbelt sign is associated with increased risk of hollow viscus
injury such as small bowel perforation.
11. What is the initial fluid of choice for resuscitation in hemorrhagic shock?
A) Packed red blood cells
8. When should a pelvic binder be applied?
B) Lactated Ringer’s solution
A) In all patients with pelvic pain C) Normal saline
B) When a pelvic fracture with instability is suspected D) Whole blood
C) Only after CT scan confirms fracture
Answer: B) Lactated Ringer’s solution
D) Never in trauma patients
Rationale: Balanced crystalloids like Lactated Ringer’s are preferred for initial fluid
Answer: B) When a pelvic fracture with instability is suspected
resuscitation.
Rationale: Pelvic binders stabilize the pelvis to reduce bleeding in suspected
unstable fractures.
12. Which of the following is NOT part of the secondary survey?
, A) Full head-to-toe examination A) Spleen
B) Reassessment of vital signs B) Liver
C) Detailed history (AMPLE) C) Kidney
D) Airway management with cervical spine protection D) Pancreas
Answer: D) Airway management with cervical spine protection Answer: A) Spleen
Rationale: Airway management is part of the primary survey. Rationale: The spleen is the most commonly injured organ in blunt abdominal
trauma.
13. What does the AMPLE history stand for?
16. What is the main goal of damage control surgery?
A) Allergies, Medications, Past illness, Last meal, Events leading to injury
B) Airway, Medications, Pulse, Level of consciousness, Exposure A) Definitive repair of all injuries
C) Allergies, Monitoring, Pressure, Level of consciousness, Environment B) Rapid control of bleeding and contamination to stabilize patient
D) Airway, Movement, Past illness, Location, Events C) Cosmetic repair
D) Only treat head injuries
Answer: A) Allergies, Medications, Past illness, Last meal, Events leading to
injury Answer: B) Rapid control of bleeding and contamination to stabilize patient
Rationale: AMPLE history helps gather relevant background during secondary Rationale: Damage control surgery aims to stabilize critical patients quickly before
survey. definitive surgery.
14. What is the hallmark sign of a basilar skull fracture? 17. In the setting of a suspected cervical spine injury, when can a cervical collar
be removed?
A) Battle’s sign (mastoid ecchymosis)
B) Raccoon eyes (periorbital ecchymosis) A) After initial airway management
C) Both A and B B) Once the patient is awake and alert and a negative CT cervical spine is
D) Subconjunctival hemorrhage confirmed
C) Immediately after arrival to hospital
Answer: C) Both A and B
D) Only after MRI
Rationale: Battle’s sign and raccoon eyes are classic findings in basilar skull
Answer: B) Once the patient is awake and alert and a negative CT cervical spine
fractures.
is confirmed
Rationale: Cervical collar removal requires both clinical assessment and imaging
15. Which organ is most commonly injured in blunt abdominal trauma? confirmation.
3. In the primary survey, what is the correct order of assessment?
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
A) Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure
2025 (VERIFIED ANSWERS) LATEST UPDATE B) Circulation, Airway, Breathing, Exposure, Disability
C) Breathing, Airway, Circulation, Disability, Exposure
D) Disability, Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Exposure
Answer: A) Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure
Rationale: The ABCDE approach prioritizes life-threatening issues first.
4. What is the definitive treatment for a tension pneumothorax?
1. What is the first step in the primary survey of a trauma patient?
A) Needle decompression followed by chest tube insertion
A) Airway assessment with cervical spine protection B) Immediate intubation
B) Breathing assessment C) Administration of high-flow oxygen
C) Circulation assessment D) Observation and serial chest x-rays
D) Disability evaluation
Answer: A) Needle decompression followed by chest tube insertion
Answer: A) Airway assessment with cervical spine protection
Rationale: Needle decompression relieves the pressure, and chest tube placement
Rationale: The primary survey follows the ABCDE approach, starting with airway definitively treats the pneumothorax.
management and ensuring cervical spine protection to prevent further injury.
5. Which of the following is an indication for immediate thoracotomy in trauma
2. Which of the following is the most common cause of preventable death in patients?
trauma patients?
A) Stable patient with hemothorax on chest x-ray
A) Airway obstruction B) Cardiac arrest with witnessed penetrating chest trauma
B) Tension pneumothorax C) Mild rib fractures with no respiratory distress
C) Hemorrhage D) Open fracture of the femur
D) Traumatic brain injury
Answer: B) Cardiac arrest with witnessed penetrating chest trauma
Answer: A) Airway obstruction
Rationale: Emergency thoracotomy is indicated in witnessed cardiac arrest from
Rationale: Airway obstruction is the most common cause of preventable death penetrating chest trauma to control hemorrhage or cardiac tamponade.
and must be recognized and treated immediately.
,6. What is the “lethal triad” in trauma patients? 9. What is the best method to assess circulation during the primary survey?
A) Hypothermia, acidosis, and coagulopathy A) Measuring blood pressure alone
B) Hypotension, hypoxia, and hyperthermia B) Checking pulses, capillary refill, and skin color
C) Bradycardia, hypotension, and hypoxia C) Doing an echocardiogram
D) Acidosis, hyperthermia, and anemia D) Counting respiratory rate
Answer: A) Hypothermia, acidosis, and coagulopathy Answer: B) Checking pulses, capillary refill, and skin color
Rationale: The lethal triad worsens trauma outcomes and must be prevented or Rationale: These clinical signs give a rapid bedside assessment of perfusion.
corrected early.
10. In trauma, Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is used to assess:
7. Which injury is most likely if a patient has abdominal tenderness with a
A) Airway patency
seatbelt sign?
B) Level of consciousness
A) Small bowel injury C) Blood pressure
B) Kidney contusion D) Respiratory rate
C) Liver laceration
Answer: B) Level of consciousness
D) Bladder rupture
Rationale: GCS scores neurological status, guiding the assessment of head injury
Answer: A) Small bowel injury
severity.
Rationale: The seatbelt sign is associated with increased risk of hollow viscus
injury such as small bowel perforation.
11. What is the initial fluid of choice for resuscitation in hemorrhagic shock?
A) Packed red blood cells
8. When should a pelvic binder be applied?
B) Lactated Ringer’s solution
A) In all patients with pelvic pain C) Normal saline
B) When a pelvic fracture with instability is suspected D) Whole blood
C) Only after CT scan confirms fracture
Answer: B) Lactated Ringer’s solution
D) Never in trauma patients
Rationale: Balanced crystalloids like Lactated Ringer’s are preferred for initial fluid
Answer: B) When a pelvic fracture with instability is suspected
resuscitation.
Rationale: Pelvic binders stabilize the pelvis to reduce bleeding in suspected
unstable fractures.
12. Which of the following is NOT part of the secondary survey?
, A) Full head-to-toe examination A) Spleen
B) Reassessment of vital signs B) Liver
C) Detailed history (AMPLE) C) Kidney
D) Airway management with cervical spine protection D) Pancreas
Answer: D) Airway management with cervical spine protection Answer: A) Spleen
Rationale: Airway management is part of the primary survey. Rationale: The spleen is the most commonly injured organ in blunt abdominal
trauma.
13. What does the AMPLE history stand for?
16. What is the main goal of damage control surgery?
A) Allergies, Medications, Past illness, Last meal, Events leading to injury
B) Airway, Medications, Pulse, Level of consciousness, Exposure A) Definitive repair of all injuries
C) Allergies, Monitoring, Pressure, Level of consciousness, Environment B) Rapid control of bleeding and contamination to stabilize patient
D) Airway, Movement, Past illness, Location, Events C) Cosmetic repair
D) Only treat head injuries
Answer: A) Allergies, Medications, Past illness, Last meal, Events leading to
injury Answer: B) Rapid control of bleeding and contamination to stabilize patient
Rationale: AMPLE history helps gather relevant background during secondary Rationale: Damage control surgery aims to stabilize critical patients quickly before
survey. definitive surgery.
14. What is the hallmark sign of a basilar skull fracture? 17. In the setting of a suspected cervical spine injury, when can a cervical collar
be removed?
A) Battle’s sign (mastoid ecchymosis)
B) Raccoon eyes (periorbital ecchymosis) A) After initial airway management
C) Both A and B B) Once the patient is awake and alert and a negative CT cervical spine is
D) Subconjunctival hemorrhage confirmed
C) Immediately after arrival to hospital
Answer: C) Both A and B
D) Only after MRI
Rationale: Battle’s sign and raccoon eyes are classic findings in basilar skull
Answer: B) Once the patient is awake and alert and a negative CT cervical spine
fractures.
is confirmed
Rationale: Cervical collar removal requires both clinical assessment and imaging
15. Which organ is most commonly injured in blunt abdominal trauma? confirmation.
