Naplex Easy Exam Questions And Answers
Verified 100% Correct
KZ has developed neutropenia and the oncologist will initiate treatment to
increase the white blood cell count. KZ has a past medical history of hypertension
and diabetes. Medications include lisinopril and metformin. What are potential
options for management of KZ's neutropenia? Select ALL that apply.
A) Epoetin alfa
B) Granulocyte colony stimulating factor
C) Granulocyte-macrophage colony stimulating factor
D) Dexrazoxane - ANSWER -B and C
UV is a patient with partial epilepsy being treated with oxcarbazepine. UV has
been stable (seizure free) for 18 months and is tolerating the medication well. UV
is presenting to a triage clinic with complaints of nausea, vomiting, headache,
confusion, lack of energy, fatigue, restlessness, irritability, muscle cramps, and
recent seizure. The emergency room provider is evaluating possible causes of UV's
symptoms. UV has a past medical history significant for hypertension, diabetes,
dyslipidemia, and partial epilepsy. Medications include metoprolol tartrate,
metformin, pitavastatin, and oxcarbazepine. Family and social history are non-
contributory. The emergency room provider consults the pharmacy department to
assist with drug and health information of drug-induced syndromes. What drug-
induced syndrome is UV most likely experiencing from oxcarbazepine?
A) Lactic acidosis
B) Rhabdomyolysis
C) Bradycardia
D) Hyponatre - ANSWER -D
VG is a 57-year-old Caucasian man who reports to his primary care physician
complaining of a 2-week history of fatigue and fever. A CBC with differential
reveals an elevated WBC (50,000 U/L) and profound thrombocytopenia (platelets
30,000 U/L). The patient is diagnosed with acute myeloid leukemia (AML-M5).
VG achieves complete remission following induction therapy and begins high-dose
cytarabine (HDAC). What toxicities should VG be counseled on?
A) Infusion related reactions, paralytic ileus, and cardiotoxicity
,B) Cerebellar toxicity, peripheral neuropathy, and infusion related reactions
C) Nausea, peripheral neuropathy, and ocular toxicity
D) Cerebellar toxicity, nausea, and ocular toxicity - ANSWER -D
Patients with hepatic encephalopathy may benefit from which of the following
nutritional formulations?
A) High branched chain amino acids (BCAA), low aromatic amino acids (AAA)
B) High branched chain amino acids, high aromatic amino acids
C) High protein, low amino acids
D) Protein and amino acid content does not affect hepatic encephalopathy -
ANSWER -A
A 62-year-old man who has quit smoking 10 years ago comes to clinic asking,
"Should I undergo screening for lung cancer?" His past medical history is
significant for hypertension and COPD. His social history is significant for a 30-
pack year history of smoking and drinks a beer or two a day. What should you
advise?
A) A chest x-ray annually
B) A chest x-ray annually plus sputum cytology
C) A spiral CT annually
D) Enrollment in a clinical trial of lung cancer screening - ANSWER -D
Which of the following statements is true regarding drug dosing in AKI?
A) All patients should be dosed for a creatinine clearance <10 mL/min.
B) Pharmacokinetic parameters do not usually change so dose adjustment is not
needed.
C) Although elimination may be decreased, the volume of distribution should
remain unchanged in AKI.
D) The estimation of kidney function should include urine output.
E) All drugs should be monitored by serum levels to ensure safety and efficacy. -
ANSWER -D
How should the herpes zoster vaccine (Zoster) be administered?
A) In the deltoid muscle at a 90° angle
B) In the deltoid muscle at a 45° angle
C) In the outer aspect of the triceps at a 45° angle
,D) In the anteriolateral thigh at a 45° angle - ANSWER -C
The provider is going to order a serum lithium level for GT. When is the
appropriate time to monitor/order a serum lithium level?
A) 2 hours after dose
B) 4 hours after dose
C) 6 hours after dose
D) 8 hours after dose - ANSWER -D
Which of the following are appropriate counseling points for rituximab? Select
ALL that apply.
A) It is available for IV or SQ administration
B) Premedication with a corticosteroid, APAP and antihistamine prior to each dose
C) Dosing may be repeated every 7 days
D) Recommended infusion dose is 1,000 mg - ANSWER -B and D
MV is a patient with a non-myeloid malignancy who is receiving treatment. MV
has received treatment previously and it affected her platelet count. What agent
may a patient with non-myeloid malignancy receive to decrease the need for
platelet transfusions?
A) Filgrastim
B) Epoetin alfa
C) Dexrazoxane
D) Oprelvekin - ANSWER -D
Which of the following is not considered a Category A threat agent?
A) Smallpox
B) Novel H1N1
C) Anthrax
D) Arenavirus - ANSWER -B
Patients with chronic indwelling catheters usually have asymptomatic bacteriuria.
What should be done if the patient becomes symptomatic? Select ALL that apply.
A) Remove the catheter
B) Insert new, sterile catheter
, C) Start antibiotic therapy
D) Give patient cranberry juice - ANSWER -A, B and C
RT, a 19-year-old woman, has been exposed to hepatitis C. Which of the
following is the most appropriate course of action?
A) Do nothing unless MM acquires hepatitis C
B) Administer immune globulin
C) Begin peg-interferon and ribavirin
D) Begin lamivudine - ANSWER -A
Which of the following is considered the primary site of metastases for prostate
cancer?
A) Liver
B) Brain
C) Lungs
D) Bone - ANSWER -D
JV presents to your pharmacy complaining of nasal congestion. He consults you
for medical management. Past medical history is significant for diabetes, chronic
kidney disease, hypertension, and gout. He wants to take the decongestant
pseudoephedrine. You are concerned about JV taking the decongestant, as it may
interact with his disease state(s). Which disease state(s) require caution and/or
monitoring with use of pseudoephedrine? Select ALL that apply.
A) Diabetes mellitus
B) Chronic kidney disease
C) Hypertension
D) Gout - ANSWER -A, B and C
What is the brand name of dasatinib?
A) Tasigna
B) Sprycel
C) Tarceva
D) Nexavar - ANSWER -B
Verified 100% Correct
KZ has developed neutropenia and the oncologist will initiate treatment to
increase the white blood cell count. KZ has a past medical history of hypertension
and diabetes. Medications include lisinopril and metformin. What are potential
options for management of KZ's neutropenia? Select ALL that apply.
A) Epoetin alfa
B) Granulocyte colony stimulating factor
C) Granulocyte-macrophage colony stimulating factor
D) Dexrazoxane - ANSWER -B and C
UV is a patient with partial epilepsy being treated with oxcarbazepine. UV has
been stable (seizure free) for 18 months and is tolerating the medication well. UV
is presenting to a triage clinic with complaints of nausea, vomiting, headache,
confusion, lack of energy, fatigue, restlessness, irritability, muscle cramps, and
recent seizure. The emergency room provider is evaluating possible causes of UV's
symptoms. UV has a past medical history significant for hypertension, diabetes,
dyslipidemia, and partial epilepsy. Medications include metoprolol tartrate,
metformin, pitavastatin, and oxcarbazepine. Family and social history are non-
contributory. The emergency room provider consults the pharmacy department to
assist with drug and health information of drug-induced syndromes. What drug-
induced syndrome is UV most likely experiencing from oxcarbazepine?
A) Lactic acidosis
B) Rhabdomyolysis
C) Bradycardia
D) Hyponatre - ANSWER -D
VG is a 57-year-old Caucasian man who reports to his primary care physician
complaining of a 2-week history of fatigue and fever. A CBC with differential
reveals an elevated WBC (50,000 U/L) and profound thrombocytopenia (platelets
30,000 U/L). The patient is diagnosed with acute myeloid leukemia (AML-M5).
VG achieves complete remission following induction therapy and begins high-dose
cytarabine (HDAC). What toxicities should VG be counseled on?
A) Infusion related reactions, paralytic ileus, and cardiotoxicity
,B) Cerebellar toxicity, peripheral neuropathy, and infusion related reactions
C) Nausea, peripheral neuropathy, and ocular toxicity
D) Cerebellar toxicity, nausea, and ocular toxicity - ANSWER -D
Patients with hepatic encephalopathy may benefit from which of the following
nutritional formulations?
A) High branched chain amino acids (BCAA), low aromatic amino acids (AAA)
B) High branched chain amino acids, high aromatic amino acids
C) High protein, low amino acids
D) Protein and amino acid content does not affect hepatic encephalopathy -
ANSWER -A
A 62-year-old man who has quit smoking 10 years ago comes to clinic asking,
"Should I undergo screening for lung cancer?" His past medical history is
significant for hypertension and COPD. His social history is significant for a 30-
pack year history of smoking and drinks a beer or two a day. What should you
advise?
A) A chest x-ray annually
B) A chest x-ray annually plus sputum cytology
C) A spiral CT annually
D) Enrollment in a clinical trial of lung cancer screening - ANSWER -D
Which of the following statements is true regarding drug dosing in AKI?
A) All patients should be dosed for a creatinine clearance <10 mL/min.
B) Pharmacokinetic parameters do not usually change so dose adjustment is not
needed.
C) Although elimination may be decreased, the volume of distribution should
remain unchanged in AKI.
D) The estimation of kidney function should include urine output.
E) All drugs should be monitored by serum levels to ensure safety and efficacy. -
ANSWER -D
How should the herpes zoster vaccine (Zoster) be administered?
A) In the deltoid muscle at a 90° angle
B) In the deltoid muscle at a 45° angle
C) In the outer aspect of the triceps at a 45° angle
,D) In the anteriolateral thigh at a 45° angle - ANSWER -C
The provider is going to order a serum lithium level for GT. When is the
appropriate time to monitor/order a serum lithium level?
A) 2 hours after dose
B) 4 hours after dose
C) 6 hours after dose
D) 8 hours after dose - ANSWER -D
Which of the following are appropriate counseling points for rituximab? Select
ALL that apply.
A) It is available for IV or SQ administration
B) Premedication with a corticosteroid, APAP and antihistamine prior to each dose
C) Dosing may be repeated every 7 days
D) Recommended infusion dose is 1,000 mg - ANSWER -B and D
MV is a patient with a non-myeloid malignancy who is receiving treatment. MV
has received treatment previously and it affected her platelet count. What agent
may a patient with non-myeloid malignancy receive to decrease the need for
platelet transfusions?
A) Filgrastim
B) Epoetin alfa
C) Dexrazoxane
D) Oprelvekin - ANSWER -D
Which of the following is not considered a Category A threat agent?
A) Smallpox
B) Novel H1N1
C) Anthrax
D) Arenavirus - ANSWER -B
Patients with chronic indwelling catheters usually have asymptomatic bacteriuria.
What should be done if the patient becomes symptomatic? Select ALL that apply.
A) Remove the catheter
B) Insert new, sterile catheter
, C) Start antibiotic therapy
D) Give patient cranberry juice - ANSWER -A, B and C
RT, a 19-year-old woman, has been exposed to hepatitis C. Which of the
following is the most appropriate course of action?
A) Do nothing unless MM acquires hepatitis C
B) Administer immune globulin
C) Begin peg-interferon and ribavirin
D) Begin lamivudine - ANSWER -A
Which of the following is considered the primary site of metastases for prostate
cancer?
A) Liver
B) Brain
C) Lungs
D) Bone - ANSWER -D
JV presents to your pharmacy complaining of nasal congestion. He consults you
for medical management. Past medical history is significant for diabetes, chronic
kidney disease, hypertension, and gout. He wants to take the decongestant
pseudoephedrine. You are concerned about JV taking the decongestant, as it may
interact with his disease state(s). Which disease state(s) require caution and/or
monitoring with use of pseudoephedrine? Select ALL that apply.
A) Diabetes mellitus
B) Chronic kidney disease
C) Hypertension
D) Gout - ANSWER -A, B and C
What is the brand name of dasatinib?
A) Tasigna
B) Sprycel
C) Tarceva
D) Nexavar - ANSWER -B
