Midterm Exam: NR511 / NR 511 – Differential
Diagnosis and Primary Care Practicum Guide |
Questions & Answers | Grade A | 100% Correct
(Verified Solutions) – Chamberlain
Midterm Exam: NR511 / NR 511 – Differential Diagnosis and Primary Care Practicum Guide
Questions & Answers
1. The SOAP note format stands for:
A) Symptoms, Observations, Assessment, Plan
B) Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan
C) Summary, Objective, Analysis, Procedure
D) Subjective, Observation, Analysis, Plan
2. The first step in ethical decision-making is:
A) Identify the problem
B) Consult an ethics committee
C) Consider the possible consequences
D) Apply the ethical principles
3. Which of the following is a classic symptom of GERD?
A) Right upper quadrant pain
B) Burning chest pain that radiates to the back
C) Heartburn that worsens when lying down
D) Projectile vomiting
4. The most common cause of acute pharyngitis is:
A) Group A Beta-Hemolytic Streptococcus (GABHS)
B) A viral pathogen
C) Epstein-Barr virus
D) Candida albicans
5. The Centor Criteria are used to determine the likelihood of:
A) Influenza
B) Streptococcal pharyngitis
,C) Bacterial sinusitis
D) Infectious Mononucleosis
6. A positive McBurney's sign is indicative of:
A) Cholecystitis
B) Appendicitis
C) Pancreatitis
D) Diverticulitis
7. The most appropriate first-line treatment for uncomplicated acute otitis media in a healthy
2-year-old is often:
A) Amoxicillin 80-90 mg/kg/day
B) Azithromycin
C) Observation with close follow-up
D) Cefdinir
8. Which finding is most suggestive of bacterial sinusitis rather than a common cold?
A) Clear rhinorrhea
B) Symptoms lasting less than 7 days
C) "Double sickening" or symptoms worsening after initial improvement
D) Morning cough
9. The gold standard for diagnosing a pulmonary embolism is:
A) D-dimer
B) Chest X-ray
C) CT pulmonary angiography
D) V/Q scan
10. The most common type of skin cancer is:
A) Malignant Melanoma
B) Squamous Cell Carcinoma
C) Basal Cell Carcinoma
D) Actinic Keratosis
11. A patient presents with a "herald patch." The most likely diagnosis is:
A) Tinea Versicolor
B) Pityriasis Rosea
C) Psoriasis
D) Numular Eczema
,12. The preferred treatment for tinea corporis (ringworm) is:
A) Oral ketoconazole
B) Topical corticosteroids
C) Topical antifungals like clotrimazole or terbinafine
D) Oral prednisone
13. Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for osteoporosis?
A) Female gender
B) Advanced age
C) Cigarette smoking
D) Family history
14. The FRAX tool is used to assess a patient's risk for:
A) Coronary Artery Disease
B) Osteoporotic fracture
C) Diabetes Mellitus
D) Stroke
15. A positive Lachman test indicates:
A) Rotator cuff tear
B) Meniscal tear
C) Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) injury
D) Carpal tunnel syndrome
16. The most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia in adults is:
A) Haemophilus influenzae
B) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Streptococcus pneumoniae
17. Which symptom is a "red flag" for a serious cause of low back pain?
A) Pain radiating to the buttock
B) Morning stiffness
C) Bowel or bladder incontinence
D) Pain with prolonged sitting
18. The Ottawa Ankle Rules are used to:
A) Determine the severity of an ankle sprain
B) Decide if an X-ray is needed to rule out a fracture
, C) Guide physical therapy exercises
D) Diagnose gout
19. First-line pharmacologic therapy for generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) in a primary care
setting is typically:
A) Atypical antipsychotics
B) Benzodiazepines
C) SSRIs or SNRIs
D) Tricyclic antidepressants
20. The PHQ-9 is a screening tool for:
A) Anxiety
B) Alcohol Use Disorder
C) Depression
D) Bipolar Disorder
21. A patient with diabetes has a foot ulcer with exposed bone. This is classified as a:
A) Stage 1 ulcer
B) Stage 2 ulcer
C) Stage 3 ulcer
D) University of Texas Grade 3 (or equivalent) ulcer
22. The best single test for diagnosing DVT is:
A) D-dimer
B) Doppler Ultrasound
C) MRI
D) Venography
23. Which of the following is NOT a typical symptom of hypothyroidism?
A) Fatigue
B) Weight gain
C) Heat intolerance
D) Constipation
24. The diagnostic criteria for Metabolic Syndrome include all EXCEPT:
A) Elevated fasting glucose
B) Elevated blood pressure
C) Elevated HDL cholesterol
D) Elevated triglycerides
Diagnosis and Primary Care Practicum Guide |
Questions & Answers | Grade A | 100% Correct
(Verified Solutions) – Chamberlain
Midterm Exam: NR511 / NR 511 – Differential Diagnosis and Primary Care Practicum Guide
Questions & Answers
1. The SOAP note format stands for:
A) Symptoms, Observations, Assessment, Plan
B) Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan
C) Summary, Objective, Analysis, Procedure
D) Subjective, Observation, Analysis, Plan
2. The first step in ethical decision-making is:
A) Identify the problem
B) Consult an ethics committee
C) Consider the possible consequences
D) Apply the ethical principles
3. Which of the following is a classic symptom of GERD?
A) Right upper quadrant pain
B) Burning chest pain that radiates to the back
C) Heartburn that worsens when lying down
D) Projectile vomiting
4. The most common cause of acute pharyngitis is:
A) Group A Beta-Hemolytic Streptococcus (GABHS)
B) A viral pathogen
C) Epstein-Barr virus
D) Candida albicans
5. The Centor Criteria are used to determine the likelihood of:
A) Influenza
B) Streptococcal pharyngitis
,C) Bacterial sinusitis
D) Infectious Mononucleosis
6. A positive McBurney's sign is indicative of:
A) Cholecystitis
B) Appendicitis
C) Pancreatitis
D) Diverticulitis
7. The most appropriate first-line treatment for uncomplicated acute otitis media in a healthy
2-year-old is often:
A) Amoxicillin 80-90 mg/kg/day
B) Azithromycin
C) Observation with close follow-up
D) Cefdinir
8. Which finding is most suggestive of bacterial sinusitis rather than a common cold?
A) Clear rhinorrhea
B) Symptoms lasting less than 7 days
C) "Double sickening" or symptoms worsening after initial improvement
D) Morning cough
9. The gold standard for diagnosing a pulmonary embolism is:
A) D-dimer
B) Chest X-ray
C) CT pulmonary angiography
D) V/Q scan
10. The most common type of skin cancer is:
A) Malignant Melanoma
B) Squamous Cell Carcinoma
C) Basal Cell Carcinoma
D) Actinic Keratosis
11. A patient presents with a "herald patch." The most likely diagnosis is:
A) Tinea Versicolor
B) Pityriasis Rosea
C) Psoriasis
D) Numular Eczema
,12. The preferred treatment for tinea corporis (ringworm) is:
A) Oral ketoconazole
B) Topical corticosteroids
C) Topical antifungals like clotrimazole or terbinafine
D) Oral prednisone
13. Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for osteoporosis?
A) Female gender
B) Advanced age
C) Cigarette smoking
D) Family history
14. The FRAX tool is used to assess a patient's risk for:
A) Coronary Artery Disease
B) Osteoporotic fracture
C) Diabetes Mellitus
D) Stroke
15. A positive Lachman test indicates:
A) Rotator cuff tear
B) Meniscal tear
C) Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) injury
D) Carpal tunnel syndrome
16. The most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia in adults is:
A) Haemophilus influenzae
B) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Streptococcus pneumoniae
17. Which symptom is a "red flag" for a serious cause of low back pain?
A) Pain radiating to the buttock
B) Morning stiffness
C) Bowel or bladder incontinence
D) Pain with prolonged sitting
18. The Ottawa Ankle Rules are used to:
A) Determine the severity of an ankle sprain
B) Decide if an X-ray is needed to rule out a fracture
, C) Guide physical therapy exercises
D) Diagnose gout
19. First-line pharmacologic therapy for generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) in a primary care
setting is typically:
A) Atypical antipsychotics
B) Benzodiazepines
C) SSRIs or SNRIs
D) Tricyclic antidepressants
20. The PHQ-9 is a screening tool for:
A) Anxiety
B) Alcohol Use Disorder
C) Depression
D) Bipolar Disorder
21. A patient with diabetes has a foot ulcer with exposed bone. This is classified as a:
A) Stage 1 ulcer
B) Stage 2 ulcer
C) Stage 3 ulcer
D) University of Texas Grade 3 (or equivalent) ulcer
22. The best single test for diagnosing DVT is:
A) D-dimer
B) Doppler Ultrasound
C) MRI
D) Venography
23. Which of the following is NOT a typical symptom of hypothyroidism?
A) Fatigue
B) Weight gain
C) Heat intolerance
D) Constipation
24. The diagnostic criteria for Metabolic Syndrome include all EXCEPT:
A) Elevated fasting glucose
B) Elevated blood pressure
C) Elevated HDL cholesterol
D) Elevated triglycerides
