NR572 / NR 572 – Advanced Acute Care
Management Exam Review | Questions and
Verified Answers | 100% Correct – Chamberlain
1. A 68-year-old patient with a history of COPD is admitted with an acute exacerbation.
Arterial blood gas (ABG) on 2L nasal cannula shows: pH 7.28, PaCO2 65 mmHg, HCO3 32
mmHg, PaO2 55 mmHg. How would you interpret this ABG?
A) Respiratory Alkalosis, Uncompensated
B) Metabolic Alkalosis, Partially Compensated
C) Respiratory Acidosis, Partially Compensated
D) Metabolic Acidosis, Uncompensated
2. The first-line treatment for a patient in stable monomorphic ventricular tachycardia (VT)
with a pulse is:
A) Amiodarone 150 mg IV bolus
B) Synchronized Cardioversion
C) Defibrillation at 200J
D) Lidocaine 1 mg/kg IV bolus
3. When managing a patient with a hypertensive emergency, the goal for mean arterial
pressure (MAP) reduction in the first hour is:
A) No more than 10-15%
B) 25-30%
C) 50%
D) Reduce to 120/80 mmHg immediately
4. A patient presents with acute onset of "the worst headache of my life" and nuchal rigidity.
The most likely diagnosis and initial diagnostic test are:
A) Migraine; CT head without contrast
B) Subarachnoid Hemorrhage; Non-contrast CT Head
C) Meningitis; Lumbar Puncture
D) Tension Headache; MRI Brain
5. Which of the following is a classic sign of cardiac tamponade?
A) Kussmaul's sign
B) Pulsus Paradoxus
,C) Hemoptysis
D) Ascites
6. For a patient with suspected heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), the most
appropriate initial action is to:
A) Continue heparin and check daily platelet counts
B) Stop all heparin products (including flushes)
C) Administer Protamine sulfate
D) Start Warfarin therapy
7. The most common cause of Community-Acquired Pneumonia (CAP) in adults is:
A) Haemophilus influenzae
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
D) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
8. A patient with a massive PE is most likely to present with:
A) Pleuritic chest pain and hemoptysis
B) Low-grade fever and cough
C) Hypotension and syncope
D) Bradycardia and jugular venous distension
9. The antidote for warfarin (Coumadin) overdose is:
A) Vitamin K
B) Protamine Sulfate
C) N-Acetylcysteine
D) Flumazenil
10. In Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA), the primary electrolyte of concern during insulin therapy
is:
A) Sodium
B) Calcium
C) Potassium
D) Magnesium
11. Which of the following is a key diagnostic criterion for Systemic Inflammatory Response
Syndrome (SIRS)?
A) Blood Pressure < 90/60 mmHg
B) Heart Rate > 90 bpm
,C) PaO2/FiO2 ratio < 300
D) Urine Output < 0.5 mL/kg/hr
12. The most sensitive initial test for diagnosing acute pancreatitis is:
A) Amylase
B) Lipase
C) Abdominal Ultrasound
D) CT Abdomen with contrast
13. A patient with myasthenia gravis presents with acute respiratory distress and increased
weakness. This is a hallmark sign of:
A) Cholinergic Crisis
B) Myasthenic Crisis
C) Serotonin Syndrome
D) Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
14. The recommended first-line agent for status epilepticus in adults is:
A) Phenytoin
B) Lorazepam
C) Levetiracetam
D) Phenobarbital
15. In a patient with an upper GI bleed, which finding suggests a variceal bleed?
A) Coffee-ground emesis
B) Melena
C) Hematochezia
D) Hematemesis in a patient with cirrhosis
16. For a patient with Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS), a key ventilator
management strategy is:
A) High Tidal Volumes (10-12 mL/kg)
B) Low Tidal Volumes (6-8 mL/kg)
C) Permissive Hypercapnia with high FiO2
D) Early tracheostomy
17. The triad of bradycardia, hypertension, and irregular respirations is known as:
A) Beck's Triad
B) Cushing's Triad
C) Charcot's Triad
D) Virchow's Triad
, 18. A patient with atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular response (RVR) is prescribed
diltiazem. The nurse practitioner must monitor for:
A) Tachycardia
B) Hypertension
C) Bradycardia and Hypotension
D) Hyperkalemia
19. The most common type of shock following an acute myocardial infarction (MI) is:
A) Obstructive Shock
B) Distributive Shock
C) Cardiogenic Shock
D) Hypovolemic Shock
20. Which lab value is most indicative of a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI)?
A) Elevated CK-MB
B) Elevated Troponin
C) Elevated Myoglobin
D) Elevated BNP
21. A patient with a sodium level of 118 mEq/L is at greatest risk for:
A) Renal Failure
B) Seizures
C) Pancreatitis
D) Heart Failure
22. The primary treatment for tension pneumothorax is:
A) Needle Decompression
B) Chest Tube Insertion
C) 100% Non-rebreather mask
D) Emergency Thoracotomy
23. In a patient with sepsis, the "Hour-1 Bundle" includes all EXCEPT:
A) Measure lactate level
B) Obtain blood cultures
C) Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics
D) Initiate vasopressors to maintain MAP > 65
24. Which ECG finding is characteristic of Hyperkalemia?
A) U-waves
B) Prolonged PR interval
Management Exam Review | Questions and
Verified Answers | 100% Correct – Chamberlain
1. A 68-year-old patient with a history of COPD is admitted with an acute exacerbation.
Arterial blood gas (ABG) on 2L nasal cannula shows: pH 7.28, PaCO2 65 mmHg, HCO3 32
mmHg, PaO2 55 mmHg. How would you interpret this ABG?
A) Respiratory Alkalosis, Uncompensated
B) Metabolic Alkalosis, Partially Compensated
C) Respiratory Acidosis, Partially Compensated
D) Metabolic Acidosis, Uncompensated
2. The first-line treatment for a patient in stable monomorphic ventricular tachycardia (VT)
with a pulse is:
A) Amiodarone 150 mg IV bolus
B) Synchronized Cardioversion
C) Defibrillation at 200J
D) Lidocaine 1 mg/kg IV bolus
3. When managing a patient with a hypertensive emergency, the goal for mean arterial
pressure (MAP) reduction in the first hour is:
A) No more than 10-15%
B) 25-30%
C) 50%
D) Reduce to 120/80 mmHg immediately
4. A patient presents with acute onset of "the worst headache of my life" and nuchal rigidity.
The most likely diagnosis and initial diagnostic test are:
A) Migraine; CT head without contrast
B) Subarachnoid Hemorrhage; Non-contrast CT Head
C) Meningitis; Lumbar Puncture
D) Tension Headache; MRI Brain
5. Which of the following is a classic sign of cardiac tamponade?
A) Kussmaul's sign
B) Pulsus Paradoxus
,C) Hemoptysis
D) Ascites
6. For a patient with suspected heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), the most
appropriate initial action is to:
A) Continue heparin and check daily platelet counts
B) Stop all heparin products (including flushes)
C) Administer Protamine sulfate
D) Start Warfarin therapy
7. The most common cause of Community-Acquired Pneumonia (CAP) in adults is:
A) Haemophilus influenzae
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
D) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
8. A patient with a massive PE is most likely to present with:
A) Pleuritic chest pain and hemoptysis
B) Low-grade fever and cough
C) Hypotension and syncope
D) Bradycardia and jugular venous distension
9. The antidote for warfarin (Coumadin) overdose is:
A) Vitamin K
B) Protamine Sulfate
C) N-Acetylcysteine
D) Flumazenil
10. In Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA), the primary electrolyte of concern during insulin therapy
is:
A) Sodium
B) Calcium
C) Potassium
D) Magnesium
11. Which of the following is a key diagnostic criterion for Systemic Inflammatory Response
Syndrome (SIRS)?
A) Blood Pressure < 90/60 mmHg
B) Heart Rate > 90 bpm
,C) PaO2/FiO2 ratio < 300
D) Urine Output < 0.5 mL/kg/hr
12. The most sensitive initial test for diagnosing acute pancreatitis is:
A) Amylase
B) Lipase
C) Abdominal Ultrasound
D) CT Abdomen with contrast
13. A patient with myasthenia gravis presents with acute respiratory distress and increased
weakness. This is a hallmark sign of:
A) Cholinergic Crisis
B) Myasthenic Crisis
C) Serotonin Syndrome
D) Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
14. The recommended first-line agent for status epilepticus in adults is:
A) Phenytoin
B) Lorazepam
C) Levetiracetam
D) Phenobarbital
15. In a patient with an upper GI bleed, which finding suggests a variceal bleed?
A) Coffee-ground emesis
B) Melena
C) Hematochezia
D) Hematemesis in a patient with cirrhosis
16. For a patient with Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS), a key ventilator
management strategy is:
A) High Tidal Volumes (10-12 mL/kg)
B) Low Tidal Volumes (6-8 mL/kg)
C) Permissive Hypercapnia with high FiO2
D) Early tracheostomy
17. The triad of bradycardia, hypertension, and irregular respirations is known as:
A) Beck's Triad
B) Cushing's Triad
C) Charcot's Triad
D) Virchow's Triad
, 18. A patient with atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular response (RVR) is prescribed
diltiazem. The nurse practitioner must monitor for:
A) Tachycardia
B) Hypertension
C) Bradycardia and Hypotension
D) Hyperkalemia
19. The most common type of shock following an acute myocardial infarction (MI) is:
A) Obstructive Shock
B) Distributive Shock
C) Cardiogenic Shock
D) Hypovolemic Shock
20. Which lab value is most indicative of a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI)?
A) Elevated CK-MB
B) Elevated Troponin
C) Elevated Myoglobin
D) Elevated BNP
21. A patient with a sodium level of 118 mEq/L is at greatest risk for:
A) Renal Failure
B) Seizures
C) Pancreatitis
D) Heart Failure
22. The primary treatment for tension pneumothorax is:
A) Needle Decompression
B) Chest Tube Insertion
C) 100% Non-rebreather mask
D) Emergency Thoracotomy
23. In a patient with sepsis, the "Hour-1 Bundle" includes all EXCEPT:
A) Measure lactate level
B) Obtain blood cultures
C) Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics
D) Initiate vasopressors to maintain MAP > 65
24. Which ECG finding is characteristic of Hyperkalemia?
A) U-waves
B) Prolonged PR interval
