WGU D027 – Advanced Pathopharmacological
Foundations: Ultimate 150-Question High-Yield
Actual Exam with Answers and Rationales (2025
Edition)
Overview:
A complete, expertly curated study resource covering cardiovascular, endocrine, renal, neuro,
respiratory, infectious, and pharmacology topics. Includes most-tested questions, bold answers,
concise rationales, and high-yield clinical pearls — designed to simulate the WGU OA exam
for optimal preparation.
1. Which of the following is the primary mechanism of ACE inhibitors?
A. Block β1-adrenergic receptors
B. Inhibit angiotensin-converting enzyme, reducing angiotensin II
C. Increase renal excretion of potassium
D. Stimulate alpha-adrenergic receptors
Rationale: ACE inhibitors reduce angiotensin II formation, causing vasodilation
and lower blood pressure.
2. Which electrolyte imbalance increases digoxin toxicity risk?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypermagnesemia
Rationale: Low potassium enhances digoxin binding to Na+/K+ ATPase,
increasing toxicity.
3. IgE-mediated hypersensitivity is classified as:
,A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
Rationale: Type I reactions involve IgE binding to mast cells/basophils →
immediate allergic response.
4. Lab test for monitoring warfarin therapy:
A. PT/INR
B. aPTT
C. Platelet count
D. Serum creatinine
Rationale: PT/INR measures extrinsic coagulation pathway; key for warfarin
monitoring.
5. Neurotransmitter deficient in Parkinson’s disease:
A. Acetylcholine
B. Dopamine
C. Serotonin
D. GABA
Rationale: Dopaminergic neuron loss in substantia nigra causes motor symptoms.
6. First-line drug for Type 2 diabetes mellitus:
A. Sulfonylureas
B. Metformin
C. Insulin
D. Thiazolidinediones
,Rationale: Metformin improves insulin sensitivity and reduces hepatic glucose
production.
7. Corticosteroid adverse effect example (hyperglycemia,
immunosuppression):
A. Type A (Augmented)
B. Type B (Bizarre)
C. Type C (Chronic)
D. Type D (Delayed)
Rationale: Type A ADRs are dose-dependent and predictable.
8. Diuretic acting on distal convoluted tubule:
A. Furosemide
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Spironolactone
D. Mannitol
Rationale: Thiazides inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption in the distal
convoluted tubule.
9. Preferred IV drug for hypertensive emergency:
A. ACE inhibitors
B. Beta-blockers
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Vasodilators
Rationale: IV vasodilators (e.g., nitroprusside) rapidly reduce BP in emergencies.
10. Lab value to monitor for heparin therapy:
, A. PT
B. INR
C. aPTT
D. Platelet count
Rationale: Heparin affects intrinsic pathway; aPTT monitors anticoagulant effect.
11. Which drug class treats acute asthma attacks?
A. Leukotriene inhibitors
B. Short-acting beta-agonists (SABA)
C. Inhaled corticosteroids
D. Long-acting beta-agonists
Rationale: SABAs (e.g., albuterol) provide rapid bronchodilation.
12. Most common side effect of ACE inhibitors:
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Cough
C. Hypotension
D. Cough
Rationale: Increased bradykinin can cause dry cough in patients taking ACE
inhibitors.
13. Which electrolyte imbalance is common with loop diuretics?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypokalemia
Rationale: Loop diuretics increase potassium excretion → hypokalemia risk.
Foundations: Ultimate 150-Question High-Yield
Actual Exam with Answers and Rationales (2025
Edition)
Overview:
A complete, expertly curated study resource covering cardiovascular, endocrine, renal, neuro,
respiratory, infectious, and pharmacology topics. Includes most-tested questions, bold answers,
concise rationales, and high-yield clinical pearls — designed to simulate the WGU OA exam
for optimal preparation.
1. Which of the following is the primary mechanism of ACE inhibitors?
A. Block β1-adrenergic receptors
B. Inhibit angiotensin-converting enzyme, reducing angiotensin II
C. Increase renal excretion of potassium
D. Stimulate alpha-adrenergic receptors
Rationale: ACE inhibitors reduce angiotensin II formation, causing vasodilation
and lower blood pressure.
2. Which electrolyte imbalance increases digoxin toxicity risk?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypermagnesemia
Rationale: Low potassium enhances digoxin binding to Na+/K+ ATPase,
increasing toxicity.
3. IgE-mediated hypersensitivity is classified as:
,A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
Rationale: Type I reactions involve IgE binding to mast cells/basophils →
immediate allergic response.
4. Lab test for monitoring warfarin therapy:
A. PT/INR
B. aPTT
C. Platelet count
D. Serum creatinine
Rationale: PT/INR measures extrinsic coagulation pathway; key for warfarin
monitoring.
5. Neurotransmitter deficient in Parkinson’s disease:
A. Acetylcholine
B. Dopamine
C. Serotonin
D. GABA
Rationale: Dopaminergic neuron loss in substantia nigra causes motor symptoms.
6. First-line drug for Type 2 diabetes mellitus:
A. Sulfonylureas
B. Metformin
C. Insulin
D. Thiazolidinediones
,Rationale: Metformin improves insulin sensitivity and reduces hepatic glucose
production.
7. Corticosteroid adverse effect example (hyperglycemia,
immunosuppression):
A. Type A (Augmented)
B. Type B (Bizarre)
C. Type C (Chronic)
D. Type D (Delayed)
Rationale: Type A ADRs are dose-dependent and predictable.
8. Diuretic acting on distal convoluted tubule:
A. Furosemide
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Spironolactone
D. Mannitol
Rationale: Thiazides inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption in the distal
convoluted tubule.
9. Preferred IV drug for hypertensive emergency:
A. ACE inhibitors
B. Beta-blockers
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Vasodilators
Rationale: IV vasodilators (e.g., nitroprusside) rapidly reduce BP in emergencies.
10. Lab value to monitor for heparin therapy:
, A. PT
B. INR
C. aPTT
D. Platelet count
Rationale: Heparin affects intrinsic pathway; aPTT monitors anticoagulant effect.
11. Which drug class treats acute asthma attacks?
A. Leukotriene inhibitors
B. Short-acting beta-agonists (SABA)
C. Inhaled corticosteroids
D. Long-acting beta-agonists
Rationale: SABAs (e.g., albuterol) provide rapid bronchodilation.
12. Most common side effect of ACE inhibitors:
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Cough
C. Hypotension
D. Cough
Rationale: Increased bradykinin can cause dry cough in patients taking ACE
inhibitors.
13. Which electrolyte imbalance is common with loop diuretics?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypokalemia
Rationale: Loop diuretics increase potassium excretion → hypokalemia risk.
