APEA Predictor Exam Questions – All-
New Combined 7 Test Bank & All
Versions Exam Bundle – Updated
2025/2026 NP Certification Prep with
Detailed Rationales
,A 68-year-old with COPD uses home oxygen. Which instruction
is most important to include?
A. “You can smoke if you keep oxygen far away.”
B. “Avoid wool clothing and flammable materials.”
C. “Store oxygen tanks in enclosed closets.”
D. “Set oxygen flow higher than prescribed if short of breath.”
Answer: B. Rationale: Oxygen increases fire risk — avoid
flammable materials; smoking is contraindicated.
2. A client with heart failure has 3+ pitting edema in both legs
and an intake > output by 1200 mL. Which action first?
A. Call provider for diuretic order.
B. Weigh the client.
C. Raise the head of bed.
D. Place on strict fluid restriction.
Answer: B. Rationale: Daily weight is the most sensitive
measure of fluid status and should be obtained first.
3. A patient prescribed lisinopril develops a dry cough. What
should the nurse do?
A. Stop the medication immediately.
B. Notify the provider about a possible ACE inhibitor side
effect.
C. Reassure the patient it’s normal and continue.
D. Administer cough suppressant PRN and continue
, medication.
Answer: B. Rationale: Dry cough is a known ACE inhibitor
adverse effect; provider may change drug (e.g., to ARB).
4. Which lab change suggests worsening renal function in a
patient on aminoglycoside antibiotics?
A. Decreased serum potassium.
B. Increased creatinine.
C. Decreased BUN.
D. Increased hemoglobin.
Answer: B. Rationale: Aminoglycosides are nephrotoxic —
rising creatinine indicates renal impairment.
5. A 2-month-old baby with pyloric stenosis will most likely
present with:
A. Projectile nonbilious vomiting and visible peristalsis.
B. Diarrhea and fever.
C. Constipation and abdominal distention.
D. Jaundice and dark urine.
Answer: A. Rationale: Classic presentation is projectile
nonbilious vomiting and palpable/visible peristalsis.
, 6. A client on warfarin (Coumadin) has an INR of 5.2 and is
asymptomatic. What is the nurse’s priority?
A. Hold warfarin and call provider for reversal plan (vitamin
K).
B. Administer additional warfarin dose.
C. Tell client to avoid vitamin K foods.
D. Discharge home with follow-up.
Answer: A. Rationale: INR >5 increases bleeding risk — hold
warfarin and notify provider for reversal guidance.
7. Which assessment finding is most concerning for a patient
with suspected acute stroke?
A. Slurred speech and facial droop.
B. Mild headache for several days.
C. Chronic memory loss.
D. Intermittent dizziness for months.
Answer: A. Rationale: Acute focal neurologic signs suggest
stroke — urgent evaluation needed.
8. A postoperative client’s blood pressure drops from 130/80
to 90/60, heart rate rises to 120, and skin is cool and
clammy. Priority action?
A. Give oral fluids.
B. Assess surgical site for bleeding.
C. Reposition client for comfort.
New Combined 7 Test Bank & All
Versions Exam Bundle – Updated
2025/2026 NP Certification Prep with
Detailed Rationales
,A 68-year-old with COPD uses home oxygen. Which instruction
is most important to include?
A. “You can smoke if you keep oxygen far away.”
B. “Avoid wool clothing and flammable materials.”
C. “Store oxygen tanks in enclosed closets.”
D. “Set oxygen flow higher than prescribed if short of breath.”
Answer: B. Rationale: Oxygen increases fire risk — avoid
flammable materials; smoking is contraindicated.
2. A client with heart failure has 3+ pitting edema in both legs
and an intake > output by 1200 mL. Which action first?
A. Call provider for diuretic order.
B. Weigh the client.
C. Raise the head of bed.
D. Place on strict fluid restriction.
Answer: B. Rationale: Daily weight is the most sensitive
measure of fluid status and should be obtained first.
3. A patient prescribed lisinopril develops a dry cough. What
should the nurse do?
A. Stop the medication immediately.
B. Notify the provider about a possible ACE inhibitor side
effect.
C. Reassure the patient it’s normal and continue.
D. Administer cough suppressant PRN and continue
, medication.
Answer: B. Rationale: Dry cough is a known ACE inhibitor
adverse effect; provider may change drug (e.g., to ARB).
4. Which lab change suggests worsening renal function in a
patient on aminoglycoside antibiotics?
A. Decreased serum potassium.
B. Increased creatinine.
C. Decreased BUN.
D. Increased hemoglobin.
Answer: B. Rationale: Aminoglycosides are nephrotoxic —
rising creatinine indicates renal impairment.
5. A 2-month-old baby with pyloric stenosis will most likely
present with:
A. Projectile nonbilious vomiting and visible peristalsis.
B. Diarrhea and fever.
C. Constipation and abdominal distention.
D. Jaundice and dark urine.
Answer: A. Rationale: Classic presentation is projectile
nonbilious vomiting and palpable/visible peristalsis.
, 6. A client on warfarin (Coumadin) has an INR of 5.2 and is
asymptomatic. What is the nurse’s priority?
A. Hold warfarin and call provider for reversal plan (vitamin
K).
B. Administer additional warfarin dose.
C. Tell client to avoid vitamin K foods.
D. Discharge home with follow-up.
Answer: A. Rationale: INR >5 increases bleeding risk — hold
warfarin and notify provider for reversal guidance.
7. Which assessment finding is most concerning for a patient
with suspected acute stroke?
A. Slurred speech and facial droop.
B. Mild headache for several days.
C. Chronic memory loss.
D. Intermittent dizziness for months.
Answer: A. Rationale: Acute focal neurologic signs suggest
stroke — urgent evaluation needed.
8. A postoperative client’s blood pressure drops from 130/80
to 90/60, heart rate rises to 120, and skin is cool and
clammy. Priority action?
A. Give oral fluids.
B. Assess surgical site for bleeding.
C. Reposition client for comfort.
