CONCEPTS FOR NURSING PRACTICE EXAM
STUDY GUIDE 2026 COMPLETE QUESTIONS
WITH CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS AND
RATIONALES || 100% GUARANTEED PASS
<LATEST VERSION>
1. A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure. The nurse administers a
prescribed diuretic. Which outcome is the most appropriate indicator of the
medication's effectiveness?
A. Increased heart rate
B. Decreased blood pressure
C. Relief from shortness of breath
D. Increased urine output
Rationale: While diuretics do increase urine output (D), the primary therapeutic
goal in heart failure is to reduce fluid volume in the lungs (pulmonary edema),
which directly relieves the symptom of shortness of breath (dyspnea). Increased
urine output is the mechanism, but relief of respiratory distress is the key clinical
outcome.
2. The nurse is teaching a client about a newly prescribed beta-blocker (e.g.,
metoprolol). Which client statement indicates a need for further teaching?
A. "I will take my pulse every day before taking the medication."
B. "I should not stop taking this medicine abruptly."
C. "This medication will help lower my blood pressure."
D. "If I feel short of breath, I should take an extra dose."
Rationale: Beta-blockers can cause bradycardia and bronchoconstriction. Feeling
short of breath is a potential side effect or sign of worsening heart failure or
asthma, not an indication for an extra dose. Abruptly stopping (B) can cause
rebound hypertension, and monitoring pulse (A) is correct due to the risk of
bradycardia.
,3. A client with a history of alcoholism is admitted with confusion, ataxia, and
nystagmus. The nurse suspects which vitamin deficiency?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
Rationale: This triad of symptoms (confusion, ataxia, nystagmus) is classic for
Wernicke's encephalopathy, which is caused by a thiamine (Vitamin B1) deficiency,
commonly seen in chronic alcoholism.
4. When applying the nursing process, which step involves the nurse analyzing
data and identifying client problems?
A. Assessment
B. Diagnosis
C. Planning
D. Evaluation
Rationale: The diagnosis phase follows assessment. It is during this phase that the
nurse clusters the collected data, interprets it, and formulates a nursing diagnosis
to identify the client's actual or potential health problems.
5. A nurse is preparing to administer a unit of packed red blood cells. Which
action is most critical before starting the transfusion?
A. Prime the IV tubing with normal saline.
B. Obtain informed consent from the client.
C. Have two licensed nurses verify the blood product with the client's
identification.
D. Ensure the client has a patent 18-gauge IV catheter.
Rationale: While all are important, the two-nurse verification at the bedside is the
single most critical safety step to prevent a fatal hemolytic transfusion reaction
due to clerical error. This action directly ensures the right blood is given to the
right client.
6. A client with Type 1 Diabetes has a blood glucose level of 55 mg/dL. The nurse
should administer which of the following first?
,A. 1 mg of Glucagon IM
B. 4 oz of orange juice
C. 10 units of regular insulin
D. Check the blood glucose again in 15 minutes
Rationale: For a conscious client with hypoglycemia, the first action is to
administer a fast-acting carbohydrate (like 4 oz of orange juice). Glucagon (A) is for
unconscious clients. Insulin (C) would worsen the situation. Re-checking (D) delays
necessary treatment.
7. According to Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, which client need should the nurse
address first?
A. The client's need to feel accomplished in their career.
B. The client's complaint of loneliness.
C. The client's difficulty breathing.
D. The client's need for education about their medication.
Rationale: Physiological needs, specifically airway, breathing, and circulation
(ABCs), are the foundation of Maslow's hierarchy and take precedence over
psychological, safety, or self-actualization needs.
8. A nurse is caring for a client on strict bed rest. To prevent the complication of
atelectasis, which intervention is most effective?
A. Anti-embolism stockings
B. Incentive spirometry
C. Passive range of motion exercises
D. Frequent position changes
Rationale: Incentive spirometry encourages deep breathing and lung expansion,
which is the primary method for preventing atelectasis (collapse of alveoli). While
position changes (D) can help, they are not as directly effective for lung expansion.
Anti-embolism stockings (A) prevent DVT, and range of motion (C) prevents
contractures.
9. The nurse is assessing a client's wound and notes thick, yellow-green
drainage. The nurse should document this as:
A. Serous drainage
, B. Sanguineous drainage
C. Serosanguineous drainage
D. Purulent drainage
Rationale: Purulent drainage is thick, often yellow, green, or brown, and indicates
the presence of infection. Serous is clear, sanguineous is bloody, and
serosanguineous is a mix of clear and bloody.
10. A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy. The nurse understands that the
purpose of the bowel preparation is to:
A. Prevent constipation after the procedure.
B. Ensure the colon is empty and clean for visualization.
C. Reduce intestinal bacteria.
D. Promote comfort during the procedure.
Rationale: The primary goal of a bowel prep before a colonoscopy is to empty the
colon of all stool to allow for clear visualization of the colon lining and to enable
the passage of the scope.
11. When delegating a task to an Unlicensed Assistive Personnel (UAP), the
nurse is ultimately responsible for:
A. The UAP's understanding of the task.
B. The supervision of the task and the outcome of the care.
C. Ensuring the UAP has a license to practice.
D. Performing the task if the UAP is unavailable.
Rationale: The registered nurse retains ultimate accountability for all delegated
tasks. This includes ensuring the task is appropriate for delegation, that the UAP is
competent, and that the outcome of the care is evaluated, even if the task itself
was performed by another.
12. A client with a head injury has clear fluid draining from the nose. The nurse's
first action should be to:
A. Suction the nose to maintain a patent airway.
B. Test the drainage for glucose with a dextrostick.
C. Inform the primary care provider immediately.
D. Have the client blow their nose.
STUDY GUIDE 2026 COMPLETE QUESTIONS
WITH CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS AND
RATIONALES || 100% GUARANTEED PASS
<LATEST VERSION>
1. A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure. The nurse administers a
prescribed diuretic. Which outcome is the most appropriate indicator of the
medication's effectiveness?
A. Increased heart rate
B. Decreased blood pressure
C. Relief from shortness of breath
D. Increased urine output
Rationale: While diuretics do increase urine output (D), the primary therapeutic
goal in heart failure is to reduce fluid volume in the lungs (pulmonary edema),
which directly relieves the symptom of shortness of breath (dyspnea). Increased
urine output is the mechanism, but relief of respiratory distress is the key clinical
outcome.
2. The nurse is teaching a client about a newly prescribed beta-blocker (e.g.,
metoprolol). Which client statement indicates a need for further teaching?
A. "I will take my pulse every day before taking the medication."
B. "I should not stop taking this medicine abruptly."
C. "This medication will help lower my blood pressure."
D. "If I feel short of breath, I should take an extra dose."
Rationale: Beta-blockers can cause bradycardia and bronchoconstriction. Feeling
short of breath is a potential side effect or sign of worsening heart failure or
asthma, not an indication for an extra dose. Abruptly stopping (B) can cause
rebound hypertension, and monitoring pulse (A) is correct due to the risk of
bradycardia.
,3. A client with a history of alcoholism is admitted with confusion, ataxia, and
nystagmus. The nurse suspects which vitamin deficiency?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
Rationale: This triad of symptoms (confusion, ataxia, nystagmus) is classic for
Wernicke's encephalopathy, which is caused by a thiamine (Vitamin B1) deficiency,
commonly seen in chronic alcoholism.
4. When applying the nursing process, which step involves the nurse analyzing
data and identifying client problems?
A. Assessment
B. Diagnosis
C. Planning
D. Evaluation
Rationale: The diagnosis phase follows assessment. It is during this phase that the
nurse clusters the collected data, interprets it, and formulates a nursing diagnosis
to identify the client's actual or potential health problems.
5. A nurse is preparing to administer a unit of packed red blood cells. Which
action is most critical before starting the transfusion?
A. Prime the IV tubing with normal saline.
B. Obtain informed consent from the client.
C. Have two licensed nurses verify the blood product with the client's
identification.
D. Ensure the client has a patent 18-gauge IV catheter.
Rationale: While all are important, the two-nurse verification at the bedside is the
single most critical safety step to prevent a fatal hemolytic transfusion reaction
due to clerical error. This action directly ensures the right blood is given to the
right client.
6. A client with Type 1 Diabetes has a blood glucose level of 55 mg/dL. The nurse
should administer which of the following first?
,A. 1 mg of Glucagon IM
B. 4 oz of orange juice
C. 10 units of regular insulin
D. Check the blood glucose again in 15 minutes
Rationale: For a conscious client with hypoglycemia, the first action is to
administer a fast-acting carbohydrate (like 4 oz of orange juice). Glucagon (A) is for
unconscious clients. Insulin (C) would worsen the situation. Re-checking (D) delays
necessary treatment.
7. According to Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, which client need should the nurse
address first?
A. The client's need to feel accomplished in their career.
B. The client's complaint of loneliness.
C. The client's difficulty breathing.
D. The client's need for education about their medication.
Rationale: Physiological needs, specifically airway, breathing, and circulation
(ABCs), are the foundation of Maslow's hierarchy and take precedence over
psychological, safety, or self-actualization needs.
8. A nurse is caring for a client on strict bed rest. To prevent the complication of
atelectasis, which intervention is most effective?
A. Anti-embolism stockings
B. Incentive spirometry
C. Passive range of motion exercises
D. Frequent position changes
Rationale: Incentive spirometry encourages deep breathing and lung expansion,
which is the primary method for preventing atelectasis (collapse of alveoli). While
position changes (D) can help, they are not as directly effective for lung expansion.
Anti-embolism stockings (A) prevent DVT, and range of motion (C) prevents
contractures.
9. The nurse is assessing a client's wound and notes thick, yellow-green
drainage. The nurse should document this as:
A. Serous drainage
, B. Sanguineous drainage
C. Serosanguineous drainage
D. Purulent drainage
Rationale: Purulent drainage is thick, often yellow, green, or brown, and indicates
the presence of infection. Serous is clear, sanguineous is bloody, and
serosanguineous is a mix of clear and bloody.
10. A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy. The nurse understands that the
purpose of the bowel preparation is to:
A. Prevent constipation after the procedure.
B. Ensure the colon is empty and clean for visualization.
C. Reduce intestinal bacteria.
D. Promote comfort during the procedure.
Rationale: The primary goal of a bowel prep before a colonoscopy is to empty the
colon of all stool to allow for clear visualization of the colon lining and to enable
the passage of the scope.
11. When delegating a task to an Unlicensed Assistive Personnel (UAP), the
nurse is ultimately responsible for:
A. The UAP's understanding of the task.
B. The supervision of the task and the outcome of the care.
C. Ensuring the UAP has a license to practice.
D. Performing the task if the UAP is unavailable.
Rationale: The registered nurse retains ultimate accountability for all delegated
tasks. This includes ensuring the task is appropriate for delegation, that the UAP is
competent, and that the outcome of the care is evaluated, even if the task itself
was performed by another.
12. A client with a head injury has clear fluid draining from the nose. The nurse's
first action should be to:
A. Suction the nose to maintain a patent airway.
B. Test the drainage for glucose with a dextrostick.
C. Inform the primary care provider immediately.
D. Have the client blow their nose.
