VN 201 MS 1 – Quiz 17 Drugs for Cardiac & DM Disorders VN 201
Medical-Surgical 1 Unitek Exam Quiz Review Questions and
Answers | 100% Pass Guaranteed | Graded A+ |
1. A patient is prescribed Metformin (Glucophage) for Type 2 Diabetes. The nurse should
instruct the patient to immediately report which symptom?
A. Mild headache
B. Increased thirst
C. Metallic taste
D. Muscle pain and dark urine
Answer: D. Muscle pain and dark urine
Explanation: Muscle pain and dark urine are signs of myopathy and, more seriously, lactic
acidosis, a rare but life-threatening side effect of metformin. While a metallic taste (C) is a
common, harmless side effect, and increased thirst (B) is a symptom of hyperglycemia, lactic
acidosis is a medical emergency.
2. Which instruction is most important for a nurse to provide a patient starting on Atorvastatin
(Lipitor) for high cholesterol?
A. "Take this medication on an empty stomach for best absorption."
B. "Avoid drinking grapefruit juice while on this medication."
C. "You may experience orange-colored urine as a normal side effect."
D. "Limit your intake of foods high in potassium."
Answer: B. "Avoid drinking grapefruit juice while on this medication."
Explanation: Grapefruit juice inhibits the enzyme that metabolizes many statins, leading to
dangerously high levels of the drug in the bloodstream and increasing the risk of severe side
effects like rhabdomyolysis. Orange-colored urine (C) is associated with Rifampin, not statins.
3. A patient taking Furosemide (Lasix) should be encouraged to eat which type of food?
,A. Foods high in sodium, like canned soups
B. Foods high in potassium, like bananas and oranges
C. Foods high in calcium, like dairy products
D. Foods high in iron, like red meat
Answer: B. Foods high in potassium, like bananas and oranges
Explanation: Loop diuretics like Furosemide cause the kidneys to excrete potassium, which can
lead to hypokalemia. Encouraging potassium-rich foods helps counteract this loss and prevent
complications like muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias.
4. The therapeutic effect of Lisinopril (Zestril), an ACE inhibitor, is to:
A. Block beta receptors in the heart, slowing the heart rate.
B. Prevent the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor.
C. Block calcium channels in the heart and blood vessels.
D. Directly relax arterial and venous smooth muscle.
Answer: B. Prevent the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor.
Explanation: ACE inhibitors work by inhibiting the Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme. This
prevents the formation of Angiotensin II, leading to vasodilation and decreased blood pressure.
A describes beta-blockers, C describes calcium channel blockers, and D describes direct
vasodilators like hydralazine.
5. A common side effect of Sitagliptin (Januvia), a DPP-4 inhibitor, is:
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Weight gain
C. Nasopharyngitis (common cold symptoms)
D. Lactic acidosis
Answer: C. Nasopharyngitis (common cold symptoms)
,Explanation: Upper respiratory infection and nasopharyngitis are common side effects of DPP-4
inhibitors. They are generally weight-neutral (B) and have a low risk of hypoglycemia (A) when
used alone. Lactic acidosis (D) is associated with metformin.
6. The nurse administers NPH insulin at 0800. When is the patient at highest risk for a
hypoglycemic reaction?
A. 0900
B. 1200 (noon)
C. 1600 (4 PM)
D. 0200 (2 AM)
Answer: C. 1600 (4 PM)
Explanation: NPH is an intermediate-acting insulin with a peak effect of 4-12 hours after
administration. If given at 0800, the peak would occur in the afternoon, making late afternoon
(around 1600) the time of highest risk for hypoglycemia.
7. Which finding in a patient taking Warfarin (Coumadin) would be of most concern to the
nurse?
A. International Normalized Ratio (INR) of 2.5
B. Bruising on the forearms
C. Pink-tinged urine
D. Mild headache
Answer: C. Pink-tinged urine
Explanation: Pink-tinged or bloody urine is a sign of bleeding, which is the primary serious
adverse effect of warfarin therapy. An INR of 2.5 (A) is often within the therapeutic range for
many conditions (e.g., 2.0-3.0 for atrial fibrillation). Bruising (B) can be expected but must be
monitored.
8. A patient is receiving Digoxin (Lanoxin). The nurse should hold the dose and notify the
provider for which finding?
, A. Apical pulse of 68 beats per minute
B. Patient reports "seeing yellow halos around lights"
C. Mild nausea
D. +1 pedal edema
Answer: B. Patient reports "seeing yellow halos around lights"
Explanation: Visual disturbances like yellow or green halos (xanthopsia) are classic signs of
digoxin toxicity. A pulse below 60 is typically the parameter for holding the dose, but 68 (A) is
acceptable. While nausea (C) can be a sign of toxicity, the visual change is more specific and
concerning.
9. The mechanism of action for Glipizide (Glucotrol), a sulfonylurea, is:
A. Decreasing hepatic glucose production and increasing insulin sensitivity.
B. Slowing carbohydrate absorption in the intestines.
C. Stimulating the pancreas to release insulin.
D. Inhibiting the DPP-4 enzyme to increase incretin levels.
Answer: C. Stimulating the pancreas to release insulin.
Explanation: Sulfonylureas work by stimulating the beta cells of the pancreas to secrete insulin.
A describes metformin, B describes alpha-glucosidase inhibitors like acarbose, and D describes
DPP-4 inhibitors.
10. A patient with chest pain is given a sublingual Nitroglycerin tablet. The nurse should expect
the drug to take effect within how long?
A. 1-2 minutes
B. 15-30 minutes
C. 1-2 hours
D. 4-6 hours
Answer: A. 1-2 minutes
Medical-Surgical 1 Unitek Exam Quiz Review Questions and
Answers | 100% Pass Guaranteed | Graded A+ |
1. A patient is prescribed Metformin (Glucophage) for Type 2 Diabetes. The nurse should
instruct the patient to immediately report which symptom?
A. Mild headache
B. Increased thirst
C. Metallic taste
D. Muscle pain and dark urine
Answer: D. Muscle pain and dark urine
Explanation: Muscle pain and dark urine are signs of myopathy and, more seriously, lactic
acidosis, a rare but life-threatening side effect of metformin. While a metallic taste (C) is a
common, harmless side effect, and increased thirst (B) is a symptom of hyperglycemia, lactic
acidosis is a medical emergency.
2. Which instruction is most important for a nurse to provide a patient starting on Atorvastatin
(Lipitor) for high cholesterol?
A. "Take this medication on an empty stomach for best absorption."
B. "Avoid drinking grapefruit juice while on this medication."
C. "You may experience orange-colored urine as a normal side effect."
D. "Limit your intake of foods high in potassium."
Answer: B. "Avoid drinking grapefruit juice while on this medication."
Explanation: Grapefruit juice inhibits the enzyme that metabolizes many statins, leading to
dangerously high levels of the drug in the bloodstream and increasing the risk of severe side
effects like rhabdomyolysis. Orange-colored urine (C) is associated with Rifampin, not statins.
3. A patient taking Furosemide (Lasix) should be encouraged to eat which type of food?
,A. Foods high in sodium, like canned soups
B. Foods high in potassium, like bananas and oranges
C. Foods high in calcium, like dairy products
D. Foods high in iron, like red meat
Answer: B. Foods high in potassium, like bananas and oranges
Explanation: Loop diuretics like Furosemide cause the kidneys to excrete potassium, which can
lead to hypokalemia. Encouraging potassium-rich foods helps counteract this loss and prevent
complications like muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias.
4. The therapeutic effect of Lisinopril (Zestril), an ACE inhibitor, is to:
A. Block beta receptors in the heart, slowing the heart rate.
B. Prevent the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor.
C. Block calcium channels in the heart and blood vessels.
D. Directly relax arterial and venous smooth muscle.
Answer: B. Prevent the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor.
Explanation: ACE inhibitors work by inhibiting the Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme. This
prevents the formation of Angiotensin II, leading to vasodilation and decreased blood pressure.
A describes beta-blockers, C describes calcium channel blockers, and D describes direct
vasodilators like hydralazine.
5. A common side effect of Sitagliptin (Januvia), a DPP-4 inhibitor, is:
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Weight gain
C. Nasopharyngitis (common cold symptoms)
D. Lactic acidosis
Answer: C. Nasopharyngitis (common cold symptoms)
,Explanation: Upper respiratory infection and nasopharyngitis are common side effects of DPP-4
inhibitors. They are generally weight-neutral (B) and have a low risk of hypoglycemia (A) when
used alone. Lactic acidosis (D) is associated with metformin.
6. The nurse administers NPH insulin at 0800. When is the patient at highest risk for a
hypoglycemic reaction?
A. 0900
B. 1200 (noon)
C. 1600 (4 PM)
D. 0200 (2 AM)
Answer: C. 1600 (4 PM)
Explanation: NPH is an intermediate-acting insulin with a peak effect of 4-12 hours after
administration. If given at 0800, the peak would occur in the afternoon, making late afternoon
(around 1600) the time of highest risk for hypoglycemia.
7. Which finding in a patient taking Warfarin (Coumadin) would be of most concern to the
nurse?
A. International Normalized Ratio (INR) of 2.5
B. Bruising on the forearms
C. Pink-tinged urine
D. Mild headache
Answer: C. Pink-tinged urine
Explanation: Pink-tinged or bloody urine is a sign of bleeding, which is the primary serious
adverse effect of warfarin therapy. An INR of 2.5 (A) is often within the therapeutic range for
many conditions (e.g., 2.0-3.0 for atrial fibrillation). Bruising (B) can be expected but must be
monitored.
8. A patient is receiving Digoxin (Lanoxin). The nurse should hold the dose and notify the
provider for which finding?
, A. Apical pulse of 68 beats per minute
B. Patient reports "seeing yellow halos around lights"
C. Mild nausea
D. +1 pedal edema
Answer: B. Patient reports "seeing yellow halos around lights"
Explanation: Visual disturbances like yellow or green halos (xanthopsia) are classic signs of
digoxin toxicity. A pulse below 60 is typically the parameter for holding the dose, but 68 (A) is
acceptable. While nausea (C) can be a sign of toxicity, the visual change is more specific and
concerning.
9. The mechanism of action for Glipizide (Glucotrol), a sulfonylurea, is:
A. Decreasing hepatic glucose production and increasing insulin sensitivity.
B. Slowing carbohydrate absorption in the intestines.
C. Stimulating the pancreas to release insulin.
D. Inhibiting the DPP-4 enzyme to increase incretin levels.
Answer: C. Stimulating the pancreas to release insulin.
Explanation: Sulfonylureas work by stimulating the beta cells of the pancreas to secrete insulin.
A describes metformin, B describes alpha-glucosidase inhibitors like acarbose, and D describes
DPP-4 inhibitors.
10. A patient with chest pain is given a sublingual Nitroglycerin tablet. The nurse should expect
the drug to take effect within how long?
A. 1-2 minutes
B. 15-30 minutes
C. 1-2 hours
D. 4-6 hours
Answer: A. 1-2 minutes
