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NSG 3280 Exam 4 Review COMPREHENSIVE QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED SOLUTIONS

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The organism most commonly associated with pelvic inflammatory disease is: a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae. b. Treponema pallidum. c. Escherichia coli. d. Pseudomonas. - a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae A long asymptomatic latent phase is characteristic of which of the following sexually transmitted infections? a. Gonorrhea b. Syphilis c. Chlamydia d. Hepatitis B - b. Syphilis A painless ulceration called a chancre is a lesion associated with infection by: a. human papillomavirus. b. N. gonorrhoeae. c. C. trachomatis. d. T. pallidum. - d. T. pallidum. Which infection can be a risk factor for cervical cancer? a. Human papillomavirus b. Molluscum contagiosum c. Granuloma inguinale d. Chancroid - a. Human papillomavirus Which of the following infections is asymptomatic and self-limited and does not require therapy? a. Syphilis b. Nongonococcal cervicitis c. Gonorrhea d. Molluscum contagiosum - d. Molluscum contagiosum

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NSG 3280 Exam 4 Review COMPREHENSIVE
QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED SOLUTIONS


The organism most commonly associated with pelvic inflammatory disease is:
a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae. b. Treponema pallidum. c. Escherichia coli. d.
Pseudomonas. - ✔✔a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae A long asymptomatic latent phase
is characteristic of which of the following sexually transmitted infections? a.
Gonorrhea b. Syphilis c. Chlamydia d. Hepatitis B - ✔✔b. Syphilis A painless
ulceration called a chancre is a lesion associated with infection by: a. human
papillomavirus. b. N. gonorrhoeae. c. C. trachomatis. d. T. pallidum. - ✔✔d. T.
pallidum. Which infection can be a risk factor for cervical cancer? a. Human
papillomavirus b. Molluscum contagiosum c. Granuloma inguinale d.
Chancroid - ✔✔a. Human papillomavirus Which of the following infections is
asymptomatic and self-limited and does not require therapy? a. Syphilis b.
Nongonococcal cervicitis c. Gonorrhea d. Molluscum contagiosum - ✔✔d.
Molluscum contagiosum The first choice of treatment for the management of
syphilis is: a. penicillin G. b. doxycycline. c. antiviral agents. d. antimicrobial
agents. - ✔✔a. penicillin G. A 23-year-old male presents with urethritis,
dysuria, and purulent urethral discharge. The suspected diagnosis would be: a.
gonorrhea. b. urinary tract infection. c. Chlamydia. d. syphilis. - ✔✔a.
gonorrhea. Transmission of Chlamydia during birth may result in -, or infection
of the eyes in the newborn. a. neonatal jaundice b. ophthalmia neonatorum c.
neonatal conjunctivitis d. erythema neonatorum - ✔✔b. ophthalmia
neonatorum The Centers for Disease Control estimate that there are - new
sexually transmitted infections every year. a. 580,000 b. 1.7 million c. 20
million d. 17 billion - ✔✔c. 20 million The initial incubation period of syphilis
lasts for - a. 2-3 days b. 10-90 days c. 3-6 weeks d. 40 years - ✔✔b. 10-90 days
Herpes lesions are fluid-filled vesicles that appear - days after infection. a. 1 to
2 b. 3 to 7 c. 7 to 10 d. 10 to 14 - ✔✔b. 3 to 7 Central nervous system
degeneration, blindness, and paresis are associated with untreated a. HSV. b.
LGV. c. syphilis. d. gonorrhea. - ✔✔c. Syphilis What systemic infections are
potentially transmitted by sexual contact? (Select all that apply.) a.
Cytomegalovirus b. Hepatitis A c. Hepatitis B d. HIV e. Herpes simplex virus -
✔✔a. Cytomegalovirus b. Hepatitis A c. Hepatitis B d. HIV A patient diagnosed
with a micropenis must be evaluated for: a. endocrine disorders. b. vascular
abnormalities. c. female sex assignment. d. epispadias. - ✔✔a. endocrine

,disorders. Erectile dysfunction is rarely because of: a. drug side effects. b.
psychological factors. c. primary causes. d. vascular diseases. - ✔✔c. primary
causes. Phimosis is a disorder of the penis characterized by a. sustained,
painful erection. b. inability to retract the foreskin. c. inability to achieve
erection. d. malpositioning of the urinary meatus. - ✔✔b. inability to retract the
foreskin. Cryptorchidism is: a. associated with an increased incidence of
testicular cancer. b. an extremely uncommon disorder. c. rarely treated. d. a
consequence of gonorrhea. - ✔✔associated with an increased incidence of
testicular cancer. Sudden, severe testicular pain is indicative of: a. prostatitis.
b. testicular cancer. c. testicular torsion. d. epididymitis. - ✔✔c. testicular
torsion A progressive decrease in the force of the urinary stream, dribbling of
urine, and difficulty initiating the urinary stream are characteristics of: a.
prostatitis. b. urinary calculi. c. bladder carcinoma. d. prostatic enlargement. -
✔✔d. prostatic enlargement The condition in which the urethra opens on the
dorsal aspect of the penis is known as: a. hypospadias. b. urethral fistula. c.
epispadias. d. priapism. - ✔✔c. epispadias A patient has cancer of the penis
that involves only the shaft. When asked about prognosis, what statement by
the nurse is best? a. I am not able to provide that information based on this
result. b. With the cancer limited to the shaft, the 5-year survival rate is 65% to
90%. c. This type of cancer is so rare, no one really knows about prognosis. d.
All cases of penile cancer have very poor outcomes. - ✔✔b. With the cancer
limited to the shaft, the 5-year survival rate is 65% to 90%. A patient
presenting with a urethral stricture may experience which symptoms? (Select
all that apply.) a. Decreased urinary stream b. Urethral discharge c. Infection
d. Urine retention e. Inability to retract the glans of the penis - ✔✔a. Decreased
urinary stream b. Urethral discharge c. Infection d. Urine retention Which
medication classes does the nurse educate men on for the treatment of erectile
dysfunction (ED)? (Select all that apply.) a. Beta-blockers b. Monoamine
oxidase inhibitors c. Anti-convulsants d. Phosphodiesterase inhibitors e.
Papaverine phentolamine - ✔✔d. Phosphodiesterase inhibitors e. Papaverine
phentolamine Which medications can be prescribed for the treatment of
premature ejaculation? (Select all that apply.) a. Clomipramine b. Paroxetine c.
Lidocaine/prilocaine cream d. Sildenafil e. Tadalafil - ✔✔a. Clomipramine b.
Paroxetine c. Lidocaine/prilocaine cream Which of the following are correctable
causes of male infertility? (Select all that apply.) a. Cryptorchidism b.
Varicocele c. Retractile testes d. Bilateral testicular atrophy e. Ductal
obstruction - ✔✔a. Cryptorchidism b. Varicocele c. Retractile testes e. Ductal
obstruction Uterine prolapse is caused by a relaxation of the: a. cardinal
ligaments. b. abdominal organs. c. cervix. d. vaginal musculature. - ✔✔a.

, cardinal ligaments. Endometriosis is a condition in which: a. the endometrium
sloughs continuously. b. ectopic endometrial tissue is present. c. an abnormal
Pap smear is diagnostic. d. the endometrium proliferates and does not shed. -
✔✔b. ectopic endometrial tissue is present A change occurring in a pregnant
woman that is indicative of a potential disorder is: a. increased metabolic rate.
b. 30% to 40% increase in cardiac output. c. increased oxygen consumption. d.
increased urinary protein. - ✔✔d. increased in urinary protein Absence of
menstruation is called: a. amenorrhea. b. metrorrhagia. c. menorrhagia. d.
dysmenorrhea. - ✔✔a. amenorrhea Abnormal uterine bleeding in
perimenopausal women is caused by: a. endometrial inflammation. b.
reproductive tract malignancies. c. endometrial fibroid tumors. d. absent or
diminished levels of progesterone. - ✔✔d. absent or diminished levels of
progesterone. What reproductive tract disorder is most likely to be associated
with urinary incontinence? a. Rectocele b. Menopause c. Cystocele d. Cervicitis
- ✔✔c. Cystocele It is true that fibrocystic breast disease: a. commonly
progresses to breast cancer. b. may be exacerbated by methylxanthines. c. is
characterized by painless breast lumps. d. is a contraindication for
progesterone birth control pills. - ✔✔B) may be exacerbated by
methylxanthines. A potential risk factor for breast cancer includes: a. a history
of fibrocystic breast disease. b. more than three pregnancies prior to age 35. c.
malnourishment. d. early menarche and late first pregnancy. - ✔✔d. early
menarche and late first pregnancy. A 32-year-old female complaining of severe
pain with menstruation and inability to participate in her routine household
activities is likely experiencing: a. dysmenorrhea. b. menorrhagia. c.
amenorrhea. d. metrorrhagia. - ✔✔a. dysmenorrhea Excessive vomiting in
pregnant women is known as: a. placenta previa. b. hyperemesis gravidarum.
c. abruptio placentae. d. spontaneous abortion. - ✔✔b. Hyperemesis
gravidarum The expected treatment of a pregnant woman with hyperemesis
gravidarum is: a. immediate cesarean section. b. seizure prophylaxis. c.
surgical removal of uterine contents. d. intravenous therapy. - ✔✔D.
intravenous therapy. Treatment of a uterine prolapse may involve the insertion
of a(n) - to hold the uterus in place. a. catheter. b. IUD. c. pessary. d.
endopelvic mesh implant. - ✔✔c. pessary. Cervical cancer can be detected in
the early, curable stage by the - test. a. Papanicolaou b. human papillomavirus
c. gonorrhoeae d. vaginal pH - ✔✔a. Papanicolaou The most common types of
uterine tumors are known as: a. ovarian cysts. b. endometriomas. c.
hydatidiform moles. d. leiomyomas. - ✔✔d. leiomyomas. A breast lump that is
painless, hard, and unmoving is most likely: a. fibrocystic breast disease. b.
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