Grade A+ NCLEX questions-OB (with rationales) and ans 2025
The doctor suspects that the client has an ectopic pregnancy.
Answer D is correct. The signs of an ectopic pregnancy are vague
Which symptom is consistent with a diagnosis of ectopic preg-
until the fallopian tube ruptures. The client will complain of sudden,
nancy?
stabbing pain in the lower quadrant that radiates down the leg or
up into the chest. Painless vaginal bleeding is a sign of placenta
a. Painless vaginal bleeding
previa, abdominal cramping is a sign of labor, and throbbing pain
b. Abdominal cramping
in the upper quadrant is not a sign of an ectopic pregnancy, making
c. Throbbing pain in the upper quadrant
answers A, B, and C incorrect.
d. Sudden, stabbing pain in the lower quadrant
Answer D is correct.
A client telephones the emergency room stating that she thinks
that she is in labor. The nurse should tell the client that labor has
The client should be advised to come to the labor and delivery
probably begun when:
unit when the contractions are every 5 minutes and consistent.
She should also be told to report to the hospital if she experiences
a. Her contractions are 2 minutes apart.
rupture of membranes or extreme bleeding. She should not wait
b. She has back pain and a bloody discharge.
until the contractions are every 2 minutes or until she has bloody
c. She experiences abdominal pain and frequent urination.
discharge, so answers A and B are incorrect. Answer C is a vague
d. Her contractions are 5 minutes apart.
answer and can be related to a urinary tract infection
Answer B is correct.
Which of the following instructions should be included in the When the client is taking oral contraceptives and begins antibi-
nurse's teaching regarding oral contraceptives? otics, another method of birth control should be used. Antibiotics
decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives. Approximately
a. Weight gain should be reported to the physician. 5-10 pounds of weight gain is not unusual, so answer A is incor-
b. An alternate method of birth control is needed when taking rect. If the client misses a birth control pill, she should be instructed
antibiotics. to take the pill as soon as she remembers the pill. Answer C is
c. If the client misses one or more pills, two pills should be taken incorrect. If she misses two, she should take two; if she misses
per day for 1 week. more than two, she should take the missed pills but use another
d. Changes in the menstrual flow should be reported to the physi- method of birth control for the remainder of the cycle. Answer D
cian. is incorrect because changes in menstrual flow are expected in
clients using oral contraceptives. Often these clients have lighter
menses.
A nursing instructor is conducting lecture and is reviewing the
functions of the female reproductive system. She asks Mark to
a. FSH and LH are released from the anterior pituitary gland.
describe the follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and the luteinizing
hormone (LH). Mark accurately responds by stating that:
FSH and LH, when stimulated by gonadotropin-releasing hor-
mone from the hypothalamus, are released from the anterior pitu-
a. FSH and LH are released from the anterior pituitary gland.
itary gland to stimulate follicular growth and development, growth
b. FSH and LH are secreted by the corpus luteum of the ovary
of the graafian follicle, and production of progesterone.
c. FSH and LH are secreted by the adrenal glands
d. FSH and LH stimulate the formation of milk during pregnancy.
b. vaginal bleeding
A woman who's 36 weeks pregnant comes into the labor & deliv-
ery unit with mild contracts. Which of the following complications contractions may disrupt the microvascular network in the placen-
should the nurse watch out for when the client informs her that
ta of a client with placenta prevue and result in bleeding. If the
she has placenta prevue?
separation of the placenta occurs at the margin of the placenta,
the blood will escape vaginally.
a. sudden rupture of membranes
b. vaginal bleeding
Sudden rupture of the membranes isn't related to placenta prevue.
c. emesis
Fever would indicate an infectious process, and emesis isn't re-
d. fever
lated to placenta previa
A 21y.o. client has been diagnosed with hydatidiform mole. Which
4.
of the following factors is considered a risk factor for developing
hydatidiform mole?
previous molar gestation increases risk for developing subsequent
molar gestation by 4-5 times. Adolescents and women ages 40+
1. age in 20s or 30s
are at increased risk for molar pregs. MULTIGRAVIDAS, esp
2. high in SES
women with prior preg loss, and women with LOWER SES are at
3. Primigravida
increased risk for this problem.
4. prior molar gestation
A 21 y.o. has arrives to the ER with c/o cramping abdominal 2. Ecoptic pregnancy
pain and mild vaginal bleeding. Pelvic exam shows a left adnexal
, Grade A+ NCLEX questions-OB (with rationales) and ans 2025
mass that's tender when palpated. Culdocentesis shows blood
most ecoptic pregnancies dont appear as obvious life threaten-
in the culdesac. This client probably has which of the following
ing med emergencies. THey must be considered in any sexually
conditions?
active woman of childbearing age who c/o menstrual irregularity,
cramping abdominal pain, and mild vaginal bleeding.
1. Abruptio placentae
2. Ecoptic pregnancy
PID, abruptio placentae and hydatidiform moles wont show blood
3. Hydatidiform mole
in the cul de sac
4. Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
1. Abruptio placentae
a client w/ severe abruptio placentae will often have SEVERE
abdominal pain. The uterus will have increased tone w/ little to no
return to resting tone btw/ contractions.
A client, 34 weeks pregnant, arrives at the ER with SEVERE The fetus will start to show signs of distress, with decels in the HR
abdominal pain, uterine tenderness and an increased uterine or even fetal death w/ large placental separation.
tone. The client denies vaginal bleeding. The external fetal monitor
shows fetal distress with severe, variable decels. The client most Placenta previa usually involves PAINLESS vaginal bleeding w/out
likely has which of the following? UCs.
A molar preg. generally would be detected before 34 weeks ges-
tation.
An ecoptic preg. which usually occurs in the FALLOPIAN TUBES,
would rupture well before 34 weeks gestation
2. estrogen and progesterone
Before the placenta functions, the corpus luteum is the primary
source for synthesis of which of the following hormones? The CL produces progesterone and estrogen for the 1st 8-10
weeks of pregnancy until the placenta takes over this function.
1. cortisol and thyroxine
2. estrogen and progesterone The high levels of estrogen and progesterone cause suppression
3. LH and FSH of LH and FSH.
4. T4 and T3
T4 and T3 are produced in the adrenal gland
1. increased tidal volume
a pregnant client breathes deeper, which increases the tidal vol-
Which of the following changes in resp functioning during preg-
ume of gas moved in and out of the respiratory tract w/ each
nancy is considered normal?
breath.
1. increased tidal volume
The expiratory volume and residual volume DECREASE as the
2. increases expiratory volume
preg. progresses.
3. decreased inspiratory capacity
4. decreased oxygen consumption.
The inspiratory capacity INCREASES during preg.
The increases oxygen consumption in the preg client is 15-20%
greater than in the nonpreg state
3. physiologic anemia
Which of the following conditions is common in pregnant clients Hgb and Hct values DECREASE during preg as the INCREASE
in the 2nd trimester of preg? in plasma volume exceeds the increase in RBC production.
1. mastitis Alterations in acid-base balance during pregnancy result in a state
2. metabolic alkalosis of resp. alkalosis, compensated by mild metabolic acidosis.
3. physiologic anemia
4. respiratory acidosis Mastitis is an infection in the breast characterized by a swollen
tender breast and flu like Sx. this condition is most freq. seen in
breast feeding clients.
2. ELECTROLYTE IMBALANCE
a 21 y.o. client, 6 weeks pregnant, is diagnosed with hyperemesis
gravidum. This excessive vomiting during pregnancy will often Excessive vomiting in clients with hyperemesis grav often causes
weight loss / fluid and electrolyte, acid base imbalance.
The doctor suspects that the client has an ectopic pregnancy.
Answer D is correct. The signs of an ectopic pregnancy are vague
Which symptom is consistent with a diagnosis of ectopic preg-
until the fallopian tube ruptures. The client will complain of sudden,
nancy?
stabbing pain in the lower quadrant that radiates down the leg or
up into the chest. Painless vaginal bleeding is a sign of placenta
a. Painless vaginal bleeding
previa, abdominal cramping is a sign of labor, and throbbing pain
b. Abdominal cramping
in the upper quadrant is not a sign of an ectopic pregnancy, making
c. Throbbing pain in the upper quadrant
answers A, B, and C incorrect.
d. Sudden, stabbing pain in the lower quadrant
Answer D is correct.
A client telephones the emergency room stating that she thinks
that she is in labor. The nurse should tell the client that labor has
The client should be advised to come to the labor and delivery
probably begun when:
unit when the contractions are every 5 minutes and consistent.
She should also be told to report to the hospital if she experiences
a. Her contractions are 2 minutes apart.
rupture of membranes or extreme bleeding. She should not wait
b. She has back pain and a bloody discharge.
until the contractions are every 2 minutes or until she has bloody
c. She experiences abdominal pain and frequent urination.
discharge, so answers A and B are incorrect. Answer C is a vague
d. Her contractions are 5 minutes apart.
answer and can be related to a urinary tract infection
Answer B is correct.
Which of the following instructions should be included in the When the client is taking oral contraceptives and begins antibi-
nurse's teaching regarding oral contraceptives? otics, another method of birth control should be used. Antibiotics
decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives. Approximately
a. Weight gain should be reported to the physician. 5-10 pounds of weight gain is not unusual, so answer A is incor-
b. An alternate method of birth control is needed when taking rect. If the client misses a birth control pill, she should be instructed
antibiotics. to take the pill as soon as she remembers the pill. Answer C is
c. If the client misses one or more pills, two pills should be taken incorrect. If she misses two, she should take two; if she misses
per day for 1 week. more than two, she should take the missed pills but use another
d. Changes in the menstrual flow should be reported to the physi- method of birth control for the remainder of the cycle. Answer D
cian. is incorrect because changes in menstrual flow are expected in
clients using oral contraceptives. Often these clients have lighter
menses.
A nursing instructor is conducting lecture and is reviewing the
functions of the female reproductive system. She asks Mark to
a. FSH and LH are released from the anterior pituitary gland.
describe the follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and the luteinizing
hormone (LH). Mark accurately responds by stating that:
FSH and LH, when stimulated by gonadotropin-releasing hor-
mone from the hypothalamus, are released from the anterior pitu-
a. FSH and LH are released from the anterior pituitary gland.
itary gland to stimulate follicular growth and development, growth
b. FSH and LH are secreted by the corpus luteum of the ovary
of the graafian follicle, and production of progesterone.
c. FSH and LH are secreted by the adrenal glands
d. FSH and LH stimulate the formation of milk during pregnancy.
b. vaginal bleeding
A woman who's 36 weeks pregnant comes into the labor & deliv-
ery unit with mild contracts. Which of the following complications contractions may disrupt the microvascular network in the placen-
should the nurse watch out for when the client informs her that
ta of a client with placenta prevue and result in bleeding. If the
she has placenta prevue?
separation of the placenta occurs at the margin of the placenta,
the blood will escape vaginally.
a. sudden rupture of membranes
b. vaginal bleeding
Sudden rupture of the membranes isn't related to placenta prevue.
c. emesis
Fever would indicate an infectious process, and emesis isn't re-
d. fever
lated to placenta previa
A 21y.o. client has been diagnosed with hydatidiform mole. Which
4.
of the following factors is considered a risk factor for developing
hydatidiform mole?
previous molar gestation increases risk for developing subsequent
molar gestation by 4-5 times. Adolescents and women ages 40+
1. age in 20s or 30s
are at increased risk for molar pregs. MULTIGRAVIDAS, esp
2. high in SES
women with prior preg loss, and women with LOWER SES are at
3. Primigravida
increased risk for this problem.
4. prior molar gestation
A 21 y.o. has arrives to the ER with c/o cramping abdominal 2. Ecoptic pregnancy
pain and mild vaginal bleeding. Pelvic exam shows a left adnexal
, Grade A+ NCLEX questions-OB (with rationales) and ans 2025
mass that's tender when palpated. Culdocentesis shows blood
most ecoptic pregnancies dont appear as obvious life threaten-
in the culdesac. This client probably has which of the following
ing med emergencies. THey must be considered in any sexually
conditions?
active woman of childbearing age who c/o menstrual irregularity,
cramping abdominal pain, and mild vaginal bleeding.
1. Abruptio placentae
2. Ecoptic pregnancy
PID, abruptio placentae and hydatidiform moles wont show blood
3. Hydatidiform mole
in the cul de sac
4. Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
1. Abruptio placentae
a client w/ severe abruptio placentae will often have SEVERE
abdominal pain. The uterus will have increased tone w/ little to no
return to resting tone btw/ contractions.
A client, 34 weeks pregnant, arrives at the ER with SEVERE The fetus will start to show signs of distress, with decels in the HR
abdominal pain, uterine tenderness and an increased uterine or even fetal death w/ large placental separation.
tone. The client denies vaginal bleeding. The external fetal monitor
shows fetal distress with severe, variable decels. The client most Placenta previa usually involves PAINLESS vaginal bleeding w/out
likely has which of the following? UCs.
A molar preg. generally would be detected before 34 weeks ges-
tation.
An ecoptic preg. which usually occurs in the FALLOPIAN TUBES,
would rupture well before 34 weeks gestation
2. estrogen and progesterone
Before the placenta functions, the corpus luteum is the primary
source for synthesis of which of the following hormones? The CL produces progesterone and estrogen for the 1st 8-10
weeks of pregnancy until the placenta takes over this function.
1. cortisol and thyroxine
2. estrogen and progesterone The high levels of estrogen and progesterone cause suppression
3. LH and FSH of LH and FSH.
4. T4 and T3
T4 and T3 are produced in the adrenal gland
1. increased tidal volume
a pregnant client breathes deeper, which increases the tidal vol-
Which of the following changes in resp functioning during preg-
ume of gas moved in and out of the respiratory tract w/ each
nancy is considered normal?
breath.
1. increased tidal volume
The expiratory volume and residual volume DECREASE as the
2. increases expiratory volume
preg. progresses.
3. decreased inspiratory capacity
4. decreased oxygen consumption.
The inspiratory capacity INCREASES during preg.
The increases oxygen consumption in the preg client is 15-20%
greater than in the nonpreg state
3. physiologic anemia
Which of the following conditions is common in pregnant clients Hgb and Hct values DECREASE during preg as the INCREASE
in the 2nd trimester of preg? in plasma volume exceeds the increase in RBC production.
1. mastitis Alterations in acid-base balance during pregnancy result in a state
2. metabolic alkalosis of resp. alkalosis, compensated by mild metabolic acidosis.
3. physiologic anemia
4. respiratory acidosis Mastitis is an infection in the breast characterized by a swollen
tender breast and flu like Sx. this condition is most freq. seen in
breast feeding clients.
2. ELECTROLYTE IMBALANCE
a 21 y.o. client, 6 weeks pregnant, is diagnosed with hyperemesis
gravidum. This excessive vomiting during pregnancy will often Excessive vomiting in clients with hyperemesis grav often causes
weight loss / fluid and electrolyte, acid base imbalance.
