AICPA Ethics Exam / AICPA Ethics Code Exam /
AICPA Professional Ethical Standards 3 SETS
COMBINED WITH COMPLETE SOLUTION
UPDATED NEW!! 2026 100% VERIFIED
CORRECT
Set 1: Core Principles, General Standards, and Responsibilities
1. What are the six core principles of the AICPA Code of Professional
Conduct?
A) Integrity, Objectivity, Independence, Due Care, Scope of Services, Public
Interest
B) Responsibilities, Public Interest, Integrity, Objectivity and Independence,
Due Care, Scope and Nature of Services
C) Honesty, Fairness, Confidentiality, Competence, Professionalism,
Compliance
D) Serving the Client, Serving the Public, Technical Standards,
Confidentiality, Contingent Fees, Advertising
2. The "Public Interest" principle states that members should act in a way
that will:
A) Serve the best interest of their employer.
B) Honor the public trust and demonstrate commitment to professionalism.
C) Maximize shareholder value.
D) Follow all IRS regulations without exception.
3. The concept of "Due Care" imposes a duty on members to:
A) Complete engagements as quickly as possible.
B) Plan and supervise adequately any professional activity for which they
are responsible.
C) Always use the most expensive and advanced software.
D) Prioritize the client's desired outcome above all else.
,4. A member in public practice should maintain objectivity and integrity,
and be free of:
A) All business risks.
B) Conflicts of interest.
C) Any client that operates in a high-risk industry.
D) The obligation to report illegal acts to the SEC.
5. According to the "Integrity" principle, a member should not knowingly
misrepresent facts or:
A) Charge high fees for simple services.
B) Subordinate their judgment to others.
C) Work for more than one client in the same industry.
D) Use estimates in the preparation of financial statements.
6. When a member's name is associated with a client's financial
statements, the member must:
A) Guarantee that the statements are 100% accurate.
B) Disclose any immaterial errors found during the engagement.
C) Comply with all applicable professional standards.
D) Obtain a signed statement from management absolving the member of
liability.
7. The "Scope and Nature of Services" principle requires that a member
in public practice determine whether providing a specific service creates
a:
A) Highly profitable engagement.
B) Conflict of interest with another client.
C) Significant amount of administrative work.
D) Threat to compliance with the Code's rules.
8. A member who commits an act discreditable to the profession violates
which section of the Code?
A) 1.000 - Responsibilities
B) 1.400 - Acts Discreditable
C) 1.600 - Integrity and Objectivity
D) 2.300 - General Standards
, 9. Which of the following is generally considered an act discreditable?
A) Making a good-faith error in a tax return.
B) Discriminating in hiring practices.
C) Using a contingent fee for a non-attest client.
D) Advertising professional services.
10.Failure to file a personal tax return or pay a tax liability in a timely
manner, when required, is:
A) Always a criminal act but not an ethics violation.
B) Permissible if the member has a reasonable excuse.
C) Considered an act discreditable to the profession.
D) Only a violation if the member is a tax partner.
Set 2: Independence
11.Independence is required for which of the following services?
A) Compilation of financial statements.
B) Preparation of a tax return.
C) An audit engagement.
D) A bookkeeping engagement.
12.Independence is required for which of the following services?
A) Preparation
B) Compilation
C) Review
D) Tax Consulting
13.A "covered member" for independence purposes includes:
A) Only the partner in charge of the attest engagement.
B) All partners in the office that services the client.
C) The firm, the attest engagement team, and certain other individuals in the
firm.
D) Any employee of the firm, regardless of their role.
14.A direct financial interest in an attest client is held by:
A) A covered member's spouse.
B) A covered member's dependent child.
AICPA Professional Ethical Standards 3 SETS
COMBINED WITH COMPLETE SOLUTION
UPDATED NEW!! 2026 100% VERIFIED
CORRECT
Set 1: Core Principles, General Standards, and Responsibilities
1. What are the six core principles of the AICPA Code of Professional
Conduct?
A) Integrity, Objectivity, Independence, Due Care, Scope of Services, Public
Interest
B) Responsibilities, Public Interest, Integrity, Objectivity and Independence,
Due Care, Scope and Nature of Services
C) Honesty, Fairness, Confidentiality, Competence, Professionalism,
Compliance
D) Serving the Client, Serving the Public, Technical Standards,
Confidentiality, Contingent Fees, Advertising
2. The "Public Interest" principle states that members should act in a way
that will:
A) Serve the best interest of their employer.
B) Honor the public trust and demonstrate commitment to professionalism.
C) Maximize shareholder value.
D) Follow all IRS regulations without exception.
3. The concept of "Due Care" imposes a duty on members to:
A) Complete engagements as quickly as possible.
B) Plan and supervise adequately any professional activity for which they
are responsible.
C) Always use the most expensive and advanced software.
D) Prioritize the client's desired outcome above all else.
,4. A member in public practice should maintain objectivity and integrity,
and be free of:
A) All business risks.
B) Conflicts of interest.
C) Any client that operates in a high-risk industry.
D) The obligation to report illegal acts to the SEC.
5. According to the "Integrity" principle, a member should not knowingly
misrepresent facts or:
A) Charge high fees for simple services.
B) Subordinate their judgment to others.
C) Work for more than one client in the same industry.
D) Use estimates in the preparation of financial statements.
6. When a member's name is associated with a client's financial
statements, the member must:
A) Guarantee that the statements are 100% accurate.
B) Disclose any immaterial errors found during the engagement.
C) Comply with all applicable professional standards.
D) Obtain a signed statement from management absolving the member of
liability.
7. The "Scope and Nature of Services" principle requires that a member
in public practice determine whether providing a specific service creates
a:
A) Highly profitable engagement.
B) Conflict of interest with another client.
C) Significant amount of administrative work.
D) Threat to compliance with the Code's rules.
8. A member who commits an act discreditable to the profession violates
which section of the Code?
A) 1.000 - Responsibilities
B) 1.400 - Acts Discreditable
C) 1.600 - Integrity and Objectivity
D) 2.300 - General Standards
, 9. Which of the following is generally considered an act discreditable?
A) Making a good-faith error in a tax return.
B) Discriminating in hiring practices.
C) Using a contingent fee for a non-attest client.
D) Advertising professional services.
10.Failure to file a personal tax return or pay a tax liability in a timely
manner, when required, is:
A) Always a criminal act but not an ethics violation.
B) Permissible if the member has a reasonable excuse.
C) Considered an act discreditable to the profession.
D) Only a violation if the member is a tax partner.
Set 2: Independence
11.Independence is required for which of the following services?
A) Compilation of financial statements.
B) Preparation of a tax return.
C) An audit engagement.
D) A bookkeeping engagement.
12.Independence is required for which of the following services?
A) Preparation
B) Compilation
C) Review
D) Tax Consulting
13.A "covered member" for independence purposes includes:
A) Only the partner in charge of the attest engagement.
B) All partners in the office that services the client.
C) The firm, the attest engagement team, and certain other individuals in the
firm.
D) Any employee of the firm, regardless of their role.
14.A direct financial interest in an attest client is held by:
A) A covered member's spouse.
B) A covered member's dependent child.
