REVIEW
Which of the following is most consistent with the diagnosis of acute bacterial
rhinosinusitis[ABRS]?
Upper respiratory tract infection symptoms persisting beyond 7-10 days
Which of the following is not consistent with the presentation asthma that is not well
controlled?
morning sputum production
Sharon is a 10 year old female with moderate persistent asthma. She is not using
prescribed inhaled steroids, but is using albuterol PRN to relieve her cough and wheeze
with satisfactory clinical effect. Currently she is using 2 MDIs per month. You consider
that:
Excessive albuterol use is a risk factor for asthma death
According to the National Asthma Education and Prevention Program Expert Panel
Report 3 (NAEPPEPR-3) guidelines, which of the following are a risks for asthma death?
-difficulty perceiving airflow obstruction or it's severity
-hospitalization or an ED visit for asthma in the past month
-current use of systemic steroids or withdrawal from systemic steroids
Compared with SABAs, LABAs:
are recommended as a first-line therapy combined with ICS in mild asthma in
adults
According to the GOLD guidelines, which of the following medications is indicated for
all stages of COPD?
SABAs
, According to the GOLD COPD guidelines, the goal of ICS use in severe COPD is to:
minimize the risk of repeated exacerbations
You see a 67 year old male with very severe COPD who asks, "When should I use my
home O2? You respond:
For at least 15 hours per day
A 19 year old presents with a complaint of bilaterally itchy, red eyes with tearing that
occurs intermittently throughout the year and is often accompanied by a rope like eye
discharge and clear nasal discharge. This is most consistent with: a. Allergic conjunctivitis
b. bacterial conjunctivitis
c. Viral conjunctivitis
Allergic conjunctivitis
Anterior epistaxis is usually caused from: a. HTN
b. Bleeding disorders
c. localized nasal mucosa trauma
d. a foreign body
localized nasal mucosa trauma
Ms Murphy is a 58 year old woman presenting with a sudden left sided headache that is
most painful in her left eye. Her vision is blurred, and the left pupil is slightly dilated and
poorly reactive. The left conjunctiva is markedly injected, and the eyeball is firm. Vision
screen with the Snellen chart is 20/30 OD; and 20/90 OS. The most likely dx is:
angle-closure glaucoma
Anterior uveitis
unilateral herpetic conjunctivitis
Open angle glaucoma
angle-closure glaucoma