TMC Practice Exam 2025/2026 Complete
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Terms in this set (151)
A 48 year-old female is Heart failure
admitted to the ED with
diaphoresis, jugular
venous distension, and 3+
pitting edema in the
ankles. These findings are
consistent with
A. liver failure.
B. pulmonary embolism.
C. heart failure.
D. electrolyte imbalances
,A patient is admitted to Needle aspirate the 2nd left intercostal space.
the ED following a motor
vehicle accident. On
physical exam, the
respiratory therapist
discovers that breath
sounds are absent in the
left chest with a
hyperresonant percussion
note. The trachea is shifted
to the right. The patient's
heart rate is 45/min,
respiratory rate is 30/min,
and blood pressure is
60/40 mm Hg. What
action should the therapist
recommend first?
A. Call for a STAT chest x-
ray.
B. Insert a chest tube into
the left chest.
C. Needle aspirate the
2nd left intercostal space.
D. Activate the medical
emergency team to
intubate the patient.
,All of the following monitoring intracuff pressures.
strategies are likely to
decrease the likelihood of
damage to the tracheal
mucosa EXCEPT
A. maintaining cuff
pressures between 20 and
25 mm Hg.
B. using the minimal leak
technique for inflation.
C. using a low-residual-
volume, low-compliance
cuff.
D. monitoring intracuff
pressures.
, A 52 year-old post- deep breathing and coughing to clear secretions.
operative
cholecystectomy patient's
breath sounds become
more coarse upon
completion of postural
drainage with percussion.
The respiratory therapist
should recommend
A. continuing the therapy
until breath sounds
improve.
B. administering dornase
alpha.
C. administering albuterol
therapy.
D. deep breathing and
coughing to clear
secretions.
A 65 kg spinal cord injured IPPB with normal saline
patient has developed
atelectasis. His inspiratory
capacity is 30% of his
predicted value. What
bronchial hygiene therapy
would be most
appropriate initially?
A. IS / SMI
B. IPPB with normal saline
C. postural drainage and
percussion
D. PEP therapy
Questions And Correct Answers (Verified
Answers)|Brand New Version!
Save
Terms in this set (151)
A 48 year-old female is Heart failure
admitted to the ED with
diaphoresis, jugular
venous distension, and 3+
pitting edema in the
ankles. These findings are
consistent with
A. liver failure.
B. pulmonary embolism.
C. heart failure.
D. electrolyte imbalances
,A patient is admitted to Needle aspirate the 2nd left intercostal space.
the ED following a motor
vehicle accident. On
physical exam, the
respiratory therapist
discovers that breath
sounds are absent in the
left chest with a
hyperresonant percussion
note. The trachea is shifted
to the right. The patient's
heart rate is 45/min,
respiratory rate is 30/min,
and blood pressure is
60/40 mm Hg. What
action should the therapist
recommend first?
A. Call for a STAT chest x-
ray.
B. Insert a chest tube into
the left chest.
C. Needle aspirate the
2nd left intercostal space.
D. Activate the medical
emergency team to
intubate the patient.
,All of the following monitoring intracuff pressures.
strategies are likely to
decrease the likelihood of
damage to the tracheal
mucosa EXCEPT
A. maintaining cuff
pressures between 20 and
25 mm Hg.
B. using the minimal leak
technique for inflation.
C. using a low-residual-
volume, low-compliance
cuff.
D. monitoring intracuff
pressures.
, A 52 year-old post- deep breathing and coughing to clear secretions.
operative
cholecystectomy patient's
breath sounds become
more coarse upon
completion of postural
drainage with percussion.
The respiratory therapist
should recommend
A. continuing the therapy
until breath sounds
improve.
B. administering dornase
alpha.
C. administering albuterol
therapy.
D. deep breathing and
coughing to clear
secretions.
A 65 kg spinal cord injured IPPB with normal saline
patient has developed
atelectasis. His inspiratory
capacity is 30% of his
predicted value. What
bronchial hygiene therapy
would be most
appropriate initially?
A. IS / SMI
B. IPPB with normal saline
C. postural drainage and
percussion
D. PEP therapy
