WGU D115 MASTER SET-ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FOR THE
ADVANCED PRACTICE NURSE| ACTUAL EXAM TEST STUDY GUIDE
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UPDATE 2025
QUESTIONS ANSWERS
Which type of genetic disease affects Sex-Linked recessive. Since males only have one X and one Y, if the affected
males more frequently than females? chromosome has the illness, it will be expressed.
In which two conditions are chromosomal Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage. Chromosome abnormalities are the
abnormalities the leading known cause? leading known cause of intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage.
Chorionic villus sampling (CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation genetic
testing (PGT) are examples of prenatal diagnostic studies and are performed in
vitro. CVS is a form of genetic testing that provides genetic information found in
What are three examples of prenatal
utero and is usually performed between weeks 11 and 14 of pregnancy. An
diagnostic studies?
amniocentesis is a form of genetic testing that evaluates amniotic fluid and is
usually performed during the second trimester, between weeks 15 and 20 of
pregnancy. PGT is performed on the embryo prior to implantation.
Which genetic disorder is characterized Cri du chat syndrome (translated as "cry of the cat") is caused by a DNA deletion.
by the presence of a zygote having one This term describes the cry often heard from a baby affected by the syndrome. Cri
chromosome with a normal complement du chat syndrome can present as a microcephalic, low birth-weight baby with a
of genes and one chromosome with a piercing cry.
missing gene?
The disease can be transmitted through female carriers.
How can an X-linked recessive disease Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may provide an
skip generations? unaffected X to a daughter or son. Furthermore, a daughter may not show signs of
the disease because she has the other X (the only X the father can give to a
female) to cancel it out.
Which type of risk is referred to as the Relative risk is a ratio of probability, not an actual occurrence of disease.
ratio of the disease rate among the entire
population to the disease rate in an
unexposed population?
Many factors from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial diseases. Observation
What are the empirical risks for most
and evaluation of each case individually provides the most thorough and accurate
multifactorial diseases based on?
assessment.
What refers to the silenced gene of a The imprinted gene is the silent gene of a gene pair.
gene pair.
What is the primary reason that some The underlying chronic illness exists.
older adults have impaired inflammation A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness depletes the body's
and wound healing? reserves to fight against illness.
Which cells are the body's primary Eosinophils are the body's primary defense against parasites.
defense against parasite invasion?
What Phagocytes bacteria? Macrophages work by eating or phagocytosing bacteria.
What is the first response to a foreign Helper T cells
pathogen?
,Which characteristic is the most important Immunogenicity is primarily based on the ability to recognize something foreign.
determinant of immunogenicity when
considering the antigen?
How are erythrocytes destroyed when The complement pathway is activated in response to blood incompatibility.
mismatched blood is administered,
causing an ABO incompatibility?
What is the hypersensitivity reaction that An immediate (type I) hypersensitivity reaction causes atopic dermatitis.
causes atopic dermatitis?
Infection with a fungus is called mycosis and includes dermatophytes (e.g., tineas,
Which four infections are considered
which refers to several skin mycoses, including ringworm and athlete's foot) and
fungal infections?
yeasts, which include candida and aspergillus.
Lab testing can detect HIV RNA 4 to 10 days after sexual transmission, whereas
When is the earliest after sexual
HIV antibody testing may take 23 to 90 days to result in a positive test. Repeat
transmission of HIV that lab results can
testing may be needed to rule out a false negative test due to testing too soon
detect infection?
after exposure, especially if a high likelihood of exposure is suspected.
What is a characteristic of exotoxins? Exotoxins are released during bacterial growth.
Which dietary lifestyle choice has been The results of decreased fat consumption have been widely studied and have
associated with a decreased risk for demonstrated a decreased risk of developing colon cancer.
developing colon cancer?
Which cancer is an individual who has Asbestos exposure results in an increased risk of lung and lung lining cancer.
worked with asbestos for over 40 years
most likely to develop?
Which statement is true regarding UV light causes basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma when the UVB
ultraviolet (UV) light? rays hit DNA strands, causing thymine base pairs that are side by side to pair
The degree of damage is not affected by together, becoming thymine dimers. These thymine dimers lead to cell death or
the light's wavelength. cancer.
Which cancer does exercise have a Exercise-induced myokines cause apoptosis of colon cancer cells.
convincing impact on reducing?
Low healthcare literacy is recognized as a TRUE
major risk factor in blood pressure control By providing patient education at the appropriate literacy level, improved health
and has been shown to have adverse outcomes may result.
effects on health outcomes.
true or false
One of the goals of the National Action True
Plan to Improve Health Literacy is to Ensuring the individual can understand all elements of a treatment plan is crucial
incorporate research and evidence- for understanding and compliance.
based plans of treatment from childhood
through university-level education in a
manner consistent with an individual's
literacy level.
True or false
Low literacy often leads to perceived noncompliance to medical instructions,
What is a red flag for low healthcare
including medication instructions. Ensuring the patient fully understands all
literacy?
instructions is critical for understanding.
Amniocentesis is recommended for Those who have a family history of genetic disorders
pregnant women with certain health
histories.
Which health history would result in an
amniocentesis recommendation?
,Studies have identified several genes that Regulation of appetite-Research has shown that genetic mutations may cause
play a role in the prevention of obesity. alterations in the regulation of appetite.
What do these genes influence?
Which concept is data reporting that Prevalence tells us how often disease is seen in a population, which includes all
sickle cell disease affects approximately 1 people with the disease at a given time, at any stage in the disease progression.
in 600 black Americans an example of?
Prader-Willi syndrome is caused by a disorder of a portion of chromosome 15.
What describes a chromosomal defect
Normally, a portion of this chromosome is inherited from both parents. With
caused by Prader-Willi syndrome?
Prader-Willi syndrome, the chromosome inherited from the father is problematic.
Prevent infection of the injured tissue
Which action is a purpose of the
The inflammatory response is a defense mechanism designed to remove damaged
inflammatory process?
tissue so the body can heal.
Which leukocytes are elevated in Neutrophils are one of the first responders to acute inflammation, and an increase
response to acute inflammatory reactions in neutrophils demonstrates an acute inflammatory response.
when considering white blood cell
differentials?
Monocytes
Neutrophils
Basophils
Eosinophils
Which type of immunity is produced by Active-acquired immunity or naturally acquired active immunity occurs when an
an individual after either natural exposure individual is exposed to a live pathogen and develops the disease or becomes
to the antigen or after immunization immune as a result of a vaccine.
against the antigen?
Which characteristics do atopic The greater quantities of IgE in atopic individuals make them genetically
individuals have that make them predisposed to develop allergies. IgE mediates the immune response to
genetically predisposed to develop allergens; therefore, the more IgE one has, the stronger the response can be to
allergies? an allergen. Think of it as having more soldiers in the army to fight the war.
A healthcare professional is conducting Vaccines require booster injections to maintain life-long protection.
community education on vaccinations. Most vaccines require a booster to increase immunity. The initial effects of a
Which statement about vaccines should vaccine may diminish over time, and boosters improve protection against disease.
the professional include in the
presentation?
Which term describes an agent's ability to Pathogenicity refers to an organism's ability to create or produce disease.
produce disease?
What are signs and symptoms of Cri du DNA deletion of chromosome 5. low birth weight, mental retardation,
Chrat Syndrome? microencephaly, and cat like cry
What are the 3 layers of human defense? Physical, Mechanical, biochemical barriers
protect against damage and infection are composed of tightly associated
What happens in the physical layer of
epithelial cells including those of the skin and of the membranous sheets lining
human defense.
the gastrointestinal, genitourinary, and respiratory tracts.
What is the second line of defense and Inflammatory response- rapid and nonspecific, protective response to cellular
the process? injury from any cause. It can occur only in vascularized tissue.
Acute- Short duration, 8-10 days from onset to healing.
How do acute and chronic inflammation Chronic inflammation- can be a continuation of acute inflammation that last 2
differ? weeks or longer. It can also occur as a distinct process without much preceding
acute inflammation
, What three systemic changes associated Fever, leukocytosis, plasma protein synthesis
with acute inflammatory response
How does the inflammatory response Neonates often have transiently depressed inflammatory function, particularly
differ in neonates? neutrophil chemotaxis and alternative complement activity.
I - IgE mediated- primary cause of common allergies. Binds with mast cells which
release histamine. (initiates allergic reaction).
Hypersensitivity Response- I vs II Histamine release leads to bronchial smooth muscle contraction,
bronchoconstriction, and immune response
II- tissue specific- wrong blood type administered or hemolytic disease of the
A vaccine is what kind of immunity Adaptive
Active immunization is produced by an individual in response to an antigen or after immunization.
What are some common diseases that are HTN, CAD, Cancers, Diabetes, Obesity, Alzheimer's Disease
categorized as multifactorial in nature?
Symptoms of Chronic suppurative otitis Chronic suppurative otitis media- will have hearing loss, purulent drainage, ear
media pain.
pain transmission is modulated by a balance of impulses conducted to the spinal
What is Gate Control Theory cord where cells in the
substantia gelatinosa function as a "gate".
produces parathyroid hormone (PTH)-
What is the parathyroid gland responsible
which is the single most important factor in the regulation of
for
serum calcium concentration.
TH is
What is TH responsible for responsible for growth, maturation, and function of cells, body
systems throughout the body and across the life span.
decreased energy, lethargy, heat intolerance,
Symptoms of hypothyroidism
lowered basal temperature, diastolic HTN, MYXEDEMA
one of the most important contributors to Obesity
insulin resistance and DM
The definition of legal blindness is the FALSE
best corrected vision of 20/100. The definition of legal blindness is the best corrected vision of 20/200.
true or false
A male patient presents with sinus Allergic rhinitis is marked by sinus congestion, clear nasal discharge, post nasal
congestion, clear nasal discharge, and a drip that causes a sore throat, and cough that is worse when supine.
cough that is worse when he is reclined.
What is the probable condition causing
these symptoms?
Unilateral tonsillar enlargement during acute tonsillitis is suggestive of a tonsillar
abscess. If the patient does not have trouble swallowing, is drooling, or has a
unilateral tonsillar enlargement during
muffled voice, then it could be an enlarged tonsil rather than an abscess. Because
acute tonsillitis is suggestive of
of the risk of airway obstruction, it is imperative that tonsillar abscess is ruled out
during the assessment.
Dopamine is the precursor of both epinephrine and norepinephrine.
Which two statements are true regarding
Epinephrine induces general vasodilation because of the predominance of β-
epinephrine?
adrenergic receptors in the muscle vasculature.
The substantia gelatinosa, which is at the tip of the posterior horn of the spinal
Which structure is specifically involved in
cord, is directly involved in pain transmission.
pain transmission?
Previousquestion
ADVANCED PRACTICE NURSE| ACTUAL EXAM TEST STUDY GUIDE
ACCURATE EXPERT VERIFIED FOR GUARANTEED PASS| LATEST
UPDATE 2025
QUESTIONS ANSWERS
Which type of genetic disease affects Sex-Linked recessive. Since males only have one X and one Y, if the affected
males more frequently than females? chromosome has the illness, it will be expressed.
In which two conditions are chromosomal Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage. Chromosome abnormalities are the
abnormalities the leading known cause? leading known cause of intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage.
Chorionic villus sampling (CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation genetic
testing (PGT) are examples of prenatal diagnostic studies and are performed in
vitro. CVS is a form of genetic testing that provides genetic information found in
What are three examples of prenatal
utero and is usually performed between weeks 11 and 14 of pregnancy. An
diagnostic studies?
amniocentesis is a form of genetic testing that evaluates amniotic fluid and is
usually performed during the second trimester, between weeks 15 and 20 of
pregnancy. PGT is performed on the embryo prior to implantation.
Which genetic disorder is characterized Cri du chat syndrome (translated as "cry of the cat") is caused by a DNA deletion.
by the presence of a zygote having one This term describes the cry often heard from a baby affected by the syndrome. Cri
chromosome with a normal complement du chat syndrome can present as a microcephalic, low birth-weight baby with a
of genes and one chromosome with a piercing cry.
missing gene?
The disease can be transmitted through female carriers.
How can an X-linked recessive disease Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may provide an
skip generations? unaffected X to a daughter or son. Furthermore, a daughter may not show signs of
the disease because she has the other X (the only X the father can give to a
female) to cancel it out.
Which type of risk is referred to as the Relative risk is a ratio of probability, not an actual occurrence of disease.
ratio of the disease rate among the entire
population to the disease rate in an
unexposed population?
Many factors from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial diseases. Observation
What are the empirical risks for most
and evaluation of each case individually provides the most thorough and accurate
multifactorial diseases based on?
assessment.
What refers to the silenced gene of a The imprinted gene is the silent gene of a gene pair.
gene pair.
What is the primary reason that some The underlying chronic illness exists.
older adults have impaired inflammation A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness depletes the body's
and wound healing? reserves to fight against illness.
Which cells are the body's primary Eosinophils are the body's primary defense against parasites.
defense against parasite invasion?
What Phagocytes bacteria? Macrophages work by eating or phagocytosing bacteria.
What is the first response to a foreign Helper T cells
pathogen?
,Which characteristic is the most important Immunogenicity is primarily based on the ability to recognize something foreign.
determinant of immunogenicity when
considering the antigen?
How are erythrocytes destroyed when The complement pathway is activated in response to blood incompatibility.
mismatched blood is administered,
causing an ABO incompatibility?
What is the hypersensitivity reaction that An immediate (type I) hypersensitivity reaction causes atopic dermatitis.
causes atopic dermatitis?
Infection with a fungus is called mycosis and includes dermatophytes (e.g., tineas,
Which four infections are considered
which refers to several skin mycoses, including ringworm and athlete's foot) and
fungal infections?
yeasts, which include candida and aspergillus.
Lab testing can detect HIV RNA 4 to 10 days after sexual transmission, whereas
When is the earliest after sexual
HIV antibody testing may take 23 to 90 days to result in a positive test. Repeat
transmission of HIV that lab results can
testing may be needed to rule out a false negative test due to testing too soon
detect infection?
after exposure, especially if a high likelihood of exposure is suspected.
What is a characteristic of exotoxins? Exotoxins are released during bacterial growth.
Which dietary lifestyle choice has been The results of decreased fat consumption have been widely studied and have
associated with a decreased risk for demonstrated a decreased risk of developing colon cancer.
developing colon cancer?
Which cancer is an individual who has Asbestos exposure results in an increased risk of lung and lung lining cancer.
worked with asbestos for over 40 years
most likely to develop?
Which statement is true regarding UV light causes basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma when the UVB
ultraviolet (UV) light? rays hit DNA strands, causing thymine base pairs that are side by side to pair
The degree of damage is not affected by together, becoming thymine dimers. These thymine dimers lead to cell death or
the light's wavelength. cancer.
Which cancer does exercise have a Exercise-induced myokines cause apoptosis of colon cancer cells.
convincing impact on reducing?
Low healthcare literacy is recognized as a TRUE
major risk factor in blood pressure control By providing patient education at the appropriate literacy level, improved health
and has been shown to have adverse outcomes may result.
effects on health outcomes.
true or false
One of the goals of the National Action True
Plan to Improve Health Literacy is to Ensuring the individual can understand all elements of a treatment plan is crucial
incorporate research and evidence- for understanding and compliance.
based plans of treatment from childhood
through university-level education in a
manner consistent with an individual's
literacy level.
True or false
Low literacy often leads to perceived noncompliance to medical instructions,
What is a red flag for low healthcare
including medication instructions. Ensuring the patient fully understands all
literacy?
instructions is critical for understanding.
Amniocentesis is recommended for Those who have a family history of genetic disorders
pregnant women with certain health
histories.
Which health history would result in an
amniocentesis recommendation?
,Studies have identified several genes that Regulation of appetite-Research has shown that genetic mutations may cause
play a role in the prevention of obesity. alterations in the regulation of appetite.
What do these genes influence?
Which concept is data reporting that Prevalence tells us how often disease is seen in a population, which includes all
sickle cell disease affects approximately 1 people with the disease at a given time, at any stage in the disease progression.
in 600 black Americans an example of?
Prader-Willi syndrome is caused by a disorder of a portion of chromosome 15.
What describes a chromosomal defect
Normally, a portion of this chromosome is inherited from both parents. With
caused by Prader-Willi syndrome?
Prader-Willi syndrome, the chromosome inherited from the father is problematic.
Prevent infection of the injured tissue
Which action is a purpose of the
The inflammatory response is a defense mechanism designed to remove damaged
inflammatory process?
tissue so the body can heal.
Which leukocytes are elevated in Neutrophils are one of the first responders to acute inflammation, and an increase
response to acute inflammatory reactions in neutrophils demonstrates an acute inflammatory response.
when considering white blood cell
differentials?
Monocytes
Neutrophils
Basophils
Eosinophils
Which type of immunity is produced by Active-acquired immunity or naturally acquired active immunity occurs when an
an individual after either natural exposure individual is exposed to a live pathogen and develops the disease or becomes
to the antigen or after immunization immune as a result of a vaccine.
against the antigen?
Which characteristics do atopic The greater quantities of IgE in atopic individuals make them genetically
individuals have that make them predisposed to develop allergies. IgE mediates the immune response to
genetically predisposed to develop allergens; therefore, the more IgE one has, the stronger the response can be to
allergies? an allergen. Think of it as having more soldiers in the army to fight the war.
A healthcare professional is conducting Vaccines require booster injections to maintain life-long protection.
community education on vaccinations. Most vaccines require a booster to increase immunity. The initial effects of a
Which statement about vaccines should vaccine may diminish over time, and boosters improve protection against disease.
the professional include in the
presentation?
Which term describes an agent's ability to Pathogenicity refers to an organism's ability to create or produce disease.
produce disease?
What are signs and symptoms of Cri du DNA deletion of chromosome 5. low birth weight, mental retardation,
Chrat Syndrome? microencephaly, and cat like cry
What are the 3 layers of human defense? Physical, Mechanical, biochemical barriers
protect against damage and infection are composed of tightly associated
What happens in the physical layer of
epithelial cells including those of the skin and of the membranous sheets lining
human defense.
the gastrointestinal, genitourinary, and respiratory tracts.
What is the second line of defense and Inflammatory response- rapid and nonspecific, protective response to cellular
the process? injury from any cause. It can occur only in vascularized tissue.
Acute- Short duration, 8-10 days from onset to healing.
How do acute and chronic inflammation Chronic inflammation- can be a continuation of acute inflammation that last 2
differ? weeks or longer. It can also occur as a distinct process without much preceding
acute inflammation
, What three systemic changes associated Fever, leukocytosis, plasma protein synthesis
with acute inflammatory response
How does the inflammatory response Neonates often have transiently depressed inflammatory function, particularly
differ in neonates? neutrophil chemotaxis and alternative complement activity.
I - IgE mediated- primary cause of common allergies. Binds with mast cells which
release histamine. (initiates allergic reaction).
Hypersensitivity Response- I vs II Histamine release leads to bronchial smooth muscle contraction,
bronchoconstriction, and immune response
II- tissue specific- wrong blood type administered or hemolytic disease of the
A vaccine is what kind of immunity Adaptive
Active immunization is produced by an individual in response to an antigen or after immunization.
What are some common diseases that are HTN, CAD, Cancers, Diabetes, Obesity, Alzheimer's Disease
categorized as multifactorial in nature?
Symptoms of Chronic suppurative otitis Chronic suppurative otitis media- will have hearing loss, purulent drainage, ear
media pain.
pain transmission is modulated by a balance of impulses conducted to the spinal
What is Gate Control Theory cord where cells in the
substantia gelatinosa function as a "gate".
produces parathyroid hormone (PTH)-
What is the parathyroid gland responsible
which is the single most important factor in the regulation of
for
serum calcium concentration.
TH is
What is TH responsible for responsible for growth, maturation, and function of cells, body
systems throughout the body and across the life span.
decreased energy, lethargy, heat intolerance,
Symptoms of hypothyroidism
lowered basal temperature, diastolic HTN, MYXEDEMA
one of the most important contributors to Obesity
insulin resistance and DM
The definition of legal blindness is the FALSE
best corrected vision of 20/100. The definition of legal blindness is the best corrected vision of 20/200.
true or false
A male patient presents with sinus Allergic rhinitis is marked by sinus congestion, clear nasal discharge, post nasal
congestion, clear nasal discharge, and a drip that causes a sore throat, and cough that is worse when supine.
cough that is worse when he is reclined.
What is the probable condition causing
these symptoms?
Unilateral tonsillar enlargement during acute tonsillitis is suggestive of a tonsillar
abscess. If the patient does not have trouble swallowing, is drooling, or has a
unilateral tonsillar enlargement during
muffled voice, then it could be an enlarged tonsil rather than an abscess. Because
acute tonsillitis is suggestive of
of the risk of airway obstruction, it is imperative that tonsillar abscess is ruled out
during the assessment.
Dopamine is the precursor of both epinephrine and norepinephrine.
Which two statements are true regarding
Epinephrine induces general vasodilation because of the predominance of β-
epinephrine?
adrenergic receptors in the muscle vasculature.
The substantia gelatinosa, which is at the tip of the posterior horn of the spinal
Which structure is specifically involved in
cord, is directly involved in pain transmission.
pain transmission?
Previousquestion
