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NSG 3500 Exam 1 – Nursing Practice_ Maternal Health (Galen College of Nursing) 2025–2026 _ Verified Exam Review with Practice-Based Questions__.pdf

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NSG 3500 Exam 1 – Nursing Practice_ Maternal Health (Galen College of Nursing) 2025–2026 _ Verified Exam Review with Practice-Based Questions__.pdf

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NSG 3500 Exam 1 – Nursing Practice:
Maternal Health (Galen College of Nursing)
2025–2026 | Verified Exam Review with
Practice-Based Questions


Sample practice questions —
Fundamentals (original)
Question 1 — Infection control (Select one)

A nurse is preparing to remove a gown and gloves after caring for a patient on contact
precautions. Which step should the nurse perform first?​
A. Remove gloves.​
B. Untie the gown at the back.​
C. Grasp the gown at the shoulders and pull away from the body.​
D. Perform hand hygiene.

Answer: A — Remove gloves.​
Rationale: Gloves are the most contaminated items and should be removed first to avoid
contaminating hands when handling the gown. After glove removal, the gown is usually untied
and pulled away without contacting the outside surface. Hand hygiene is performed immediately
after removal of PPE (after both gloves and gown are off). Untying at the back before glove
removal could increase contamination risk.




Question 2 — Medication safety (Select one)

A patient with a new prescription for metoprolol 25 mg PO daily tells the nurse they already take
over-the-counter pseudoephedrine for seasonal allergies. Which action is most appropriate?​
A. Tell the patient to stop pseudoephedrine immediately.​
B. Educate the patient that pseudoephedrine may raise blood pressure and advise to consult
prescriber.​
C. Document both medications and administer the metoprolol as ordered without discussion.​
D. Advise the patient to take metoprolol at night so interactions are minimized.

, Answer: B — Educate the patient that pseudoephedrine may raise blood pressure and advise
to consult prescriber.​
Rationale: Pseudoephedrine is a sympathomimetic that can increase blood pressure and may
counteract antihypertensive effects of beta-blockers. The nurse should educate and notify the
prescriber; do not unilaterally instruct to stop prescription or OTC meds. Timing (night) doesn’t
eliminate the pharmacologic interaction.




Question 3 — Vital signs interpretation (Select one)

A 76-year-old patient has respiratory rate 30/min, SpO₂ 88% on room air, coarse crackles
bilaterally, and shortness of breath. Which nursing action has highest priority?​
A. Obtain a chest x-ray order.​
B. Apply oxygen and titrate to SpO₂ ≥ 92%.​
C. Encourage deep breathing and coughing.​
D. Administer PRN bronchodilator per protocol.

Answer: B — Apply oxygen and titrate to SpO₂ ≥ 92%.​
Rationale: Low oxygen saturation and tachypnea are immediate problems; applying oxygen is
highest priority to correct hypoxemia. Other interventions (x-ray, bronchodilator, coughing) may
be appropriate soon after oxygen stabilization and assessment.




Question 4 — Safety & fall prevention (Select one)

Which patient would the nurse identify as highest fall risk?​
A. 45-year-old with long-bone fracture in a cast, alert and ambulatory with walker.​
B. 82-year-old taking multiple antihypertensives, recent orthostatic hypotension.​
C. 58-year-old post-op day 1, receiving opioid PCA with controlled settings.​
D. 67-year-old with new diagnosis of Parkinson’s disease, stable on meds.

Answer: B — 82-year-old taking multiple antihypertensives, recent orthostatic hypotension.​
Rationale: Advanced age plus polypharmacy and documented orthostatic hypotension create
the highest immediate fall risk. Post-op PCA and cast increase risk, but the combination of age,
medications, and orthostatic changes is most predictive.




Question 5 — Documentation (Select one)

Which statement best reflects accurate, professional charting?​
A. “Patient is being difficult and refuses to walk.”​
B. “Patient ambulated 20 feet with walker; tolerated well; slight shortness of breath reported,
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