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AGD Fellowship Exam Practice Questions With 100% Correct Answers | Verified

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AGD Fellowship Exam Practice Questions With 100% Correct Answers | Verified

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AGSF - American Geriatrics Society Fellow
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AGD Fellowship Exam Practice
Questions With 100% Correct Answers
| Verified
The maximum daily dose for Tylenol® extra strength tablets is:
A. 2500 mg.
B. 3000 mg.
C. 3500 mg.
D. 4000 mg. CORRECT ANSWERS (D) 4000 mg.

Which of the following is a contraindication to using a benzodiazepine as a sedative
agent?
A. An epileptic patient
B. A patient who is on coumadin
C. A hyperthyroid patient
D. A patient with narrow angle glaucoma CORRECT ANSWERS (D) A patient with
narrow angle glaucoma

Patients suffering severe anxiety may be recognized by all of the following symptoms
except one. Which is exception?
A. Increased blood pressure
B. Constricted pupils
C. Increased heart rate
D. Excessive sweating CORRECT ANSWERS (B) Constricted pupils

Anesthesia of mandibular teeth in adults by the infiltration method would be achieved
best by the use of:
A. 1.8 mL of Prilocaine 4% + epinephrine 1:100,000.
B. 1.8 mL of Bupivacaine 0.5% + epinephrine 1:200,000.
C. 1.8 mL of Mepivacaine 2% + levonordefrin 1:20,000.
D. 1.8 mL of Articaine 4% + epinephrine 1:100,000. CORRECT ANSWERS (D) 1.8 mL
of Articaine 4% + epinephrine 1:100,000.
Four well designed studies showed articaine to be more successful in achieving
adequate anesthesia than lidocaine in mandibular teeth. One theory is that articaine is
more effective due to its higher concentration.

The ability to titrate medication, predictability, and the ability to provide amnesic
properties best describes __________ sedation.
A. intramuscular
B. oral
C. intravenous
D. subcutaneous CORRECT ANSWERS (C) intravenous

,The only vasoconstrictor used in local anesthetics that is contraindicated with
concomitant MAO inhibitor therapy is:
A. phenylephrine.
B. norepinephrine.
C. epinephrine.
D. levonordefrin. CORRECT ANSWERS A) phenylephrine.

Following administration of an inferior alveolar nerve block (IANB), the clinician should
routinely administer a buccal nerve block. The buccal nerve provides sensory
innervation to the buccal soft tissues adjacent to the mandibular molars only.
A. Both statements are TRUE.
B. Both statements are FALSE.
C. The first statement is TRUE; the second is FALSE.
D. The first statement is FALSE; the second is TRUE. CORRECT ANSWERS (D) The
first statement is FALSE; the second is TRUE.

What is the dominant color of an object?
A. Chroma
B. Hue
C. Value
D. Color CORRECT ANSWERS (B) Hue
Hue is the dominant color of an object for example red, green, and blue. Value is also
known as the gray scale. Value increases toward the high end (lighter) and decreases
toward the lower end (darker). Chroma is the degree of saturation of a particular hue.
For example, red can vary from 'scarlet' to light pink where scarlet has a high saturation
and pink has a low saturation.

Which of the following choices has the materials arranged from the highest thermal
conductivity to the lowest?
A. Amalgam, Pure Gold, Enamel, Composite
B. Pure Gold, Enamel, Composite, Amalgam
C. Amalgam, Enamel, Pure Gold, Composite
D. Pure Gold, Amalgam, Composite, Enamel CORRECT ANSWERS (D) Pure Gold,
Amalgam, Composite, Enamel

All of the following are advantages of vinyl polysiloxane impression materials except
one. Which is the exception?
A. Margins easily seen
B. Hydrophobic
C. Stable
D. Repeated pourability CORRECT ANSWERS Correct Answer: (B) Hydrophobic

What is the stress at which a test specimen exhibits a specific amount of plastic strain?
A. Yield strength
B. Tensile strength
C. Shear strength

, D. Compressive strength CORRECT ANSWERS Correct Answer: (A) Yield
strengthDefinition of yield strength: the stress which a test specimen exhibits a specific
amount of plastic strain.

Under clinical conditions, composite resins can suffer surface wear and degradation by
coming in contact with oral fluids. Nanofilled composites wear significantly more than
natural human enamel in a 3 and 5 year study.
A. Both statements are TRUE.
B. Both statements are FALSE
C. The first statement is TRUE; the second is FALSE.
D. The first statement is FALSE; the second is TRUE. CORRECT ANSWERS (C) The
first statement is TRUE; the second is FALSE.

Which of the following is adjusted by manufacturers to create regular and fast-set
alginate impression materials?
A. Diatomaceous earth
B. Calcium sulfate dihydrate
C. Potassium sulfate
D. Sodium phosphate CORRECT ANSWERS D) Sodium phosphate

Which of the following is true regarding resin cements?
A. Film thickness is between 55 and 65 μm.
B. Compressive strength is between 180 and 300 MPa.
C. Flexural strength is between 20 and 40 MPa.
D. Immediate shear bond strength is between 5 and 8 MPa. CORRECT ANSWERS B)
Compressive strength is between 180 and 300 MPa.

Dentinogenesis imperfecta is characterized radiographically by:
A. enamel hyperplasia.
B. unusually long and pointed roots.
C. a thickened periodontal ligament space.
D. total or partial root canal obliteration. CORRECT ANSWERS (D) total or partial root
canal obliteration.
Dentinogenesis imperfecta has been divided into three types. In type I or syndrome-
associated, the dentin abnormality (opalescent teeth) occurs in patients with concurrent
osteogenesis imperfect and primary teeth are more severely affected than permanent
teeth. In type II, patients have only dental abnormalities (isolated, hereditary opalescent
teeth) and no bone disease. In type III, only dental defects (isolated opalescent teeth
and Brandywine isolate) occur.

Which of the following is an advantage of digital radiography?
A. More radiation to patient
B. Ability to enhance the image
C. Easy access through unecrypted websites.
D. Image quality is not quite as good as film CORRECT ANSWERS B. Ability to
enhance the image

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