1
109 PAGES APEA 3P Exam Predictor Exam 100% (Best Predictor Exam for
2024/ 2025) (A+ Free
,2
1.
A 37-year-old female patient with a history of a single episode of depression and frequent complaints of
PMS is being treated for hypothyroidism. Today she complains of poor concentration and fatigue. Initially,
the NP should:
✅ a. Question her further
Rationale:
Before ordering new tests or adjusting medication, the NP must obtain a more detailed history. Symptoms
such as fatigue and poor concentration can result from depression relapse, hypothyroidism, or medication
side effects. A thorough assessment helps identify the cause.
3.
Which of the following is an example of secondary prevention?
✅ a. Annual influenza vaccination
Rationale:
Actually, annual influenza vaccination is primary prevention, as it prevents disease occurrence.
A secondary prevention example would be screening for early disease detection (e.g., mammogram, Pap
test).
7.
A 35-year old female with a history of mitral valve prolapse is scheduled for routine dental cleaning.
According to the 2007 American Association’s guideline for endocarditis prophylaxis, what would you
advise this patient?
✅ a. She does not need prophylaxis for any dental procedure
Rationale:
The 2007 AHA guidelines recommend prophylaxis only for high-risk conditions such as prosthetic valves,
history of infective endocarditis, or certain congenital heart defects. Mitral valve prolapse no longer requires
prophylaxis.
8.
, 3
A patient recovering from a recent stroke is starting anticoagulant therapy. The nurse practitioner should
teach the patient to avoid all of the following EXCEPT:
✅ b. milk and milk products
Rationale:
Milk does not interfere with anticoagulants.
Foods rich in vitamin K (leafy greens) or supplements like ginseng, garlic, or ginkgo can alter warfarin
effects. Dairy is safe.
9.
A patient presents with periorbital erythema and edema, fever, and nasal drainage. The nurse practitioner
should
✅ a. start aggressive antibiotic therapy
Rationale:
These are signs of orbital cellulitis, a medical emergency that can lead to vision loss or meningitis.
Immediate IV antibiotic therapy is required.
10.
A positive drawer sign support a diagnosis of
✅ b. cruciate ligament injury
Rationale:
The anterior or posterior drawer tests evaluate ACL and PCL integrity. Laxity indicates injury to one of the
cruciate ligaments.
11.
A 50-year-old patient with diabetes complains of pain bilaterally in her lower legs while walking. The pain
disappears at rest. What else would you expect to identify on her lower extremities.
✅ b. peripheral artery insufficiency
Rationale:
Pain that resolves with rest (intermittent claudication) is classic for arterial insufficiency. You’d expect
weak pulses, cool skin, and hair loss on the legs.
12.
, 4
A 16-year-old athlete complains of pain underneath his heel every time he walks. There is a verrucous
surface level with the skin of the heel. What pharmacologic interventions should the nurse practitioner
prescribe for this patient?
✅ a. salicylic acid plasters
Rationale:
A verrucous (wart-like) lesion is a plantar wart. Topical keratolytic agents like salicylic acid soften and
remove wart tissue effectively.
13.
A –year-old with Type I diabetes has had itching and burning lesions between her toes for 6 months.
Scrapings of the lesion confirm the diagnosis of tinea pedis. What is the best treatment option for this
patient?
✅ a. prescribe an anti-fungal powder for application between her toes and in her shoes and a topical
prescription strength anti-fungal cream for other affected areas. Monitor for a secondary bacterial
infection.
Rationale:
Localized tinea pedis responds to topical antifungals. Because diabetes predisposes to secondary infections,
careful foot hygiene and monitoring are essential. Oral antifungals are for refractory or widespread
infections.
14.
What is an appropriate drug for prophylactic treatment of migraine headaches in a 21-year-old female?
✅ b. propranolol (Inderal)
Rationale:
Propranolol, a beta-blocker, is a first-line agent for migraine prevention.
Sumatriptan and DHE are abortive, not preventive, treatments.
15.
Which of the following are the classic features of ulcerative colitis?
✅ d. Remission and exacerbations of bloody diarrhea, tenesmus, fecal incontinence, abdominal pain
Rationale:
Ulcerative colitis causes inflammation of the colon and rectum, presenting with bloody diarrhea and
tenesmus.
Crohn’s disease, by contrast, causes RLQ pain and non-bloody diarrhea.
109 PAGES APEA 3P Exam Predictor Exam 100% (Best Predictor Exam for
2024/ 2025) (A+ Free
,2
1.
A 37-year-old female patient with a history of a single episode of depression and frequent complaints of
PMS is being treated for hypothyroidism. Today she complains of poor concentration and fatigue. Initially,
the NP should:
✅ a. Question her further
Rationale:
Before ordering new tests or adjusting medication, the NP must obtain a more detailed history. Symptoms
such as fatigue and poor concentration can result from depression relapse, hypothyroidism, or medication
side effects. A thorough assessment helps identify the cause.
3.
Which of the following is an example of secondary prevention?
✅ a. Annual influenza vaccination
Rationale:
Actually, annual influenza vaccination is primary prevention, as it prevents disease occurrence.
A secondary prevention example would be screening for early disease detection (e.g., mammogram, Pap
test).
7.
A 35-year old female with a history of mitral valve prolapse is scheduled for routine dental cleaning.
According to the 2007 American Association’s guideline for endocarditis prophylaxis, what would you
advise this patient?
✅ a. She does not need prophylaxis for any dental procedure
Rationale:
The 2007 AHA guidelines recommend prophylaxis only for high-risk conditions such as prosthetic valves,
history of infective endocarditis, or certain congenital heart defects. Mitral valve prolapse no longer requires
prophylaxis.
8.
, 3
A patient recovering from a recent stroke is starting anticoagulant therapy. The nurse practitioner should
teach the patient to avoid all of the following EXCEPT:
✅ b. milk and milk products
Rationale:
Milk does not interfere with anticoagulants.
Foods rich in vitamin K (leafy greens) or supplements like ginseng, garlic, or ginkgo can alter warfarin
effects. Dairy is safe.
9.
A patient presents with periorbital erythema and edema, fever, and nasal drainage. The nurse practitioner
should
✅ a. start aggressive antibiotic therapy
Rationale:
These are signs of orbital cellulitis, a medical emergency that can lead to vision loss or meningitis.
Immediate IV antibiotic therapy is required.
10.
A positive drawer sign support a diagnosis of
✅ b. cruciate ligament injury
Rationale:
The anterior or posterior drawer tests evaluate ACL and PCL integrity. Laxity indicates injury to one of the
cruciate ligaments.
11.
A 50-year-old patient with diabetes complains of pain bilaterally in her lower legs while walking. The pain
disappears at rest. What else would you expect to identify on her lower extremities.
✅ b. peripheral artery insufficiency
Rationale:
Pain that resolves with rest (intermittent claudication) is classic for arterial insufficiency. You’d expect
weak pulses, cool skin, and hair loss on the legs.
12.
, 4
A 16-year-old athlete complains of pain underneath his heel every time he walks. There is a verrucous
surface level with the skin of the heel. What pharmacologic interventions should the nurse practitioner
prescribe for this patient?
✅ a. salicylic acid plasters
Rationale:
A verrucous (wart-like) lesion is a plantar wart. Topical keratolytic agents like salicylic acid soften and
remove wart tissue effectively.
13.
A –year-old with Type I diabetes has had itching and burning lesions between her toes for 6 months.
Scrapings of the lesion confirm the diagnosis of tinea pedis. What is the best treatment option for this
patient?
✅ a. prescribe an anti-fungal powder for application between her toes and in her shoes and a topical
prescription strength anti-fungal cream for other affected areas. Monitor for a secondary bacterial
infection.
Rationale:
Localized tinea pedis responds to topical antifungals. Because diabetes predisposes to secondary infections,
careful foot hygiene and monitoring are essential. Oral antifungals are for refractory or widespread
infections.
14.
What is an appropriate drug for prophylactic treatment of migraine headaches in a 21-year-old female?
✅ b. propranolol (Inderal)
Rationale:
Propranolol, a beta-blocker, is a first-line agent for migraine prevention.
Sumatriptan and DHE are abortive, not preventive, treatments.
15.
Which of the following are the classic features of ulcerative colitis?
✅ d. Remission and exacerbations of bloody diarrhea, tenesmus, fecal incontinence, abdominal pain
Rationale:
Ulcerative colitis causes inflammation of the colon and rectum, presenting with bloody diarrhea and
tenesmus.
Crohn’s disease, by contrast, causes RLQ pain and non-bloody diarrhea.
