RN COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR
RN COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR 2024/
2025 WITH NGN VERSION REAL EXAM
QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS & RATIONALES | ATI RN
COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR WITH
NGN LATEST VERSION (NEW!!)
A 26-year-old gravida 2, para 1, client is admitted to the hospital at 28 weeks of gestation in
preterm labor. She is given three doses of terbutaline sulfate (Brethine), 0.25 mg
subcutaneously, to stop her labor contractions. What are the primary side effects of terbutaline
sulfate?
A.Drowsiness and paroxysmal bradycardia
B. Depressed reflexes and increased respirations
C. Tachycardia and a feeling of nervousness
D. A flushed warm feeling and dry mouth –
Correct Answer :C
Rationale:
Terbutaline sulfate (Brethine), a beta-sympathomimetic drug, stimulates beta-adrenergic
receptors in the uterine muscle to stop contractions. The beta-adrenergic agonist properties of
the drug may cause tachycardia, increased cardiac output, restlessness, headache, and a feeling
of nervousness. Option A is not a side effect. Options B and D are side effects of magnesium
sulfate.
A+ TEST BANK 1
, RN COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR
A mother who is HIV-positive delivers a full-term newborn and asks the nurse if her baby will
become HIV-infected. Which explanation should the nurse provide?
A. Most infants of HIV-positive women will continue to test positive for HIV antibodies.
B. Infants who have HIV-positive mothers carry the virus and will eventually develop the disease.
C. Medication taken during pregnancy to reduce the mother's viral load ensures that the infant is
HIV-negative.
D. HIV infection is determined at 18 months of age, when maternal HIV antibodies are no longer
present. –
Correct Answer :D
Rationale:
All newborns of HIV-positive mothers receive passive HIV antibodies from the mother, so the
evaluation of an infant for the HIV virus is determined at 18 months of age, when all the
maternal antibodies are no longer in the infant's blood. Passive HIV antibodies disappear in the
infant within 18 months of age. Option B is inaccurate. Although administration of HIV
medication during pregnancy can significantly reduce the risk of vertical transmission, treatment
does not ensure that the virus will not become manifest in the infant.
The nurse instructs a laboring client to use accelerated blow breathing. The client begins to
complain of tingling fingers and dizziness. Which action should the nurse take?
A. Administer oxygen by facemask.
B. Notify the health care provider of the client's symptoms.
C. Have the client breathe into her cupped hands.
D. Check the client's blood pressure and fetal heart rate. –
Correct Answer :C
Rationale:
A+ TEST BANK 2
, RN COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR
Tingling fingers and dizziness are signs of hyperventilation (blowing off too much carbon
dioxide). Hyperventilation is treated by retaining carbon dioxide. This can be facilitated by
breathing into a paper bag or cupped hands. Option A is inappropriate because the carbon
dioxide level is low, not the oxygen level. Options B and D are not specific for this situation.
Twenty minutes after a continuous epidural anesthetic is administered, a laboring client's blood
pressure drops from 120/80 to 90/60 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take immediately?
A. Notify the health care provider or anesthesiologist.
B. Continue to assess the blood pressure every 5 minutes.
C. Place the client in a lateral position.
D. Turn off the continuous epidural. –
Correct Answer :C
Rationale:
The nurse should immediately turn the client to a lateral position or place a pillow or wedge
under one hip to deflect the uterus. Other immediate interventions include increasing the rate of
the main line IV infusion and administering oxygen by face mask. If the blood pressure remains
low after these interventions or decreases further, the anesthesiologist or health care provider
should be notified immediately. To continue to monitor blood pressure without taking further
action could constitute malpractice. Option D may also be warranted, but such action is based on
hospital protocol.
A nurse receives a shift change report for a newborn who is 12 hours post-vaginal delivery. In
developing a plan of care, the nurse should give the highest priority to which finding?
A. Cyanosis of the hands and feet
B. Skin color that is slightly jaundiced
C. Tiny white papules on the nose or chin
D. Red patches on the cheeks and trunk –
A+ TEST BANK 3
, RN COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR
Correct Answer :B
Rationale:
Jaundice, a yellow skin coloration, is caused by elevated levels of bilirubin, which should be
further evaluated in a newborn <24 hours old. Acrocyanosis (blue color of the hands and feet) is
a common finding in newborns; it occurs because the capillary system is immature. Milia are
small white papules present on the nose and chin that are caused by sebaceous gland blockage
and disappear in a few weeks. Small red patches on the cheeks and trunk are called erythema
toxicum neonatorum, a common finding in newborns.
A client who is 3 days postpartum and breastfeeding asks the nurse how to reduce breast
engorgement. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
A. Avoid using the breast pump.
B. Breastfeed the infant every 2 hours.
C. Reduce fluid intake for 24 hours.
D. Skip feedings to let the sore breasts rest. –
Correct Answer :B
Rationale:
The mother should be instructed to attempt feeding her infant every 2 hours while massaging
the breasts as the infant is feeding. If the infant does not feed adequately and empty the breast,
using a breast pump helps extract the milk and relieve some of the discomfort. Dehydration
irritates swollen breast tissue. Skipping feedings may cause further engorgement and discomfort.
The client comes to the hospital assuming she is in labor. Which assessment findings by the
nurse would indicate that the client is in true labor? (Select all that apply.)
A. Pain in the lower back that radiates to abdomen
A+ TEST BANK 4
RN COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR 2024/
2025 WITH NGN VERSION REAL EXAM
QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS & RATIONALES | ATI RN
COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR WITH
NGN LATEST VERSION (NEW!!)
A 26-year-old gravida 2, para 1, client is admitted to the hospital at 28 weeks of gestation in
preterm labor. She is given three doses of terbutaline sulfate (Brethine), 0.25 mg
subcutaneously, to stop her labor contractions. What are the primary side effects of terbutaline
sulfate?
A.Drowsiness and paroxysmal bradycardia
B. Depressed reflexes and increased respirations
C. Tachycardia and a feeling of nervousness
D. A flushed warm feeling and dry mouth –
Correct Answer :C
Rationale:
Terbutaline sulfate (Brethine), a beta-sympathomimetic drug, stimulates beta-adrenergic
receptors in the uterine muscle to stop contractions. The beta-adrenergic agonist properties of
the drug may cause tachycardia, increased cardiac output, restlessness, headache, and a feeling
of nervousness. Option A is not a side effect. Options B and D are side effects of magnesium
sulfate.
A+ TEST BANK 1
, RN COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR
A mother who is HIV-positive delivers a full-term newborn and asks the nurse if her baby will
become HIV-infected. Which explanation should the nurse provide?
A. Most infants of HIV-positive women will continue to test positive for HIV antibodies.
B. Infants who have HIV-positive mothers carry the virus and will eventually develop the disease.
C. Medication taken during pregnancy to reduce the mother's viral load ensures that the infant is
HIV-negative.
D. HIV infection is determined at 18 months of age, when maternal HIV antibodies are no longer
present. –
Correct Answer :D
Rationale:
All newborns of HIV-positive mothers receive passive HIV antibodies from the mother, so the
evaluation of an infant for the HIV virus is determined at 18 months of age, when all the
maternal antibodies are no longer in the infant's blood. Passive HIV antibodies disappear in the
infant within 18 months of age. Option B is inaccurate. Although administration of HIV
medication during pregnancy can significantly reduce the risk of vertical transmission, treatment
does not ensure that the virus will not become manifest in the infant.
The nurse instructs a laboring client to use accelerated blow breathing. The client begins to
complain of tingling fingers and dizziness. Which action should the nurse take?
A. Administer oxygen by facemask.
B. Notify the health care provider of the client's symptoms.
C. Have the client breathe into her cupped hands.
D. Check the client's blood pressure and fetal heart rate. –
Correct Answer :C
Rationale:
A+ TEST BANK 2
, RN COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR
Tingling fingers and dizziness are signs of hyperventilation (blowing off too much carbon
dioxide). Hyperventilation is treated by retaining carbon dioxide. This can be facilitated by
breathing into a paper bag or cupped hands. Option A is inappropriate because the carbon
dioxide level is low, not the oxygen level. Options B and D are not specific for this situation.
Twenty minutes after a continuous epidural anesthetic is administered, a laboring client's blood
pressure drops from 120/80 to 90/60 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take immediately?
A. Notify the health care provider or anesthesiologist.
B. Continue to assess the blood pressure every 5 minutes.
C. Place the client in a lateral position.
D. Turn off the continuous epidural. –
Correct Answer :C
Rationale:
The nurse should immediately turn the client to a lateral position or place a pillow or wedge
under one hip to deflect the uterus. Other immediate interventions include increasing the rate of
the main line IV infusion and administering oxygen by face mask. If the blood pressure remains
low after these interventions or decreases further, the anesthesiologist or health care provider
should be notified immediately. To continue to monitor blood pressure without taking further
action could constitute malpractice. Option D may also be warranted, but such action is based on
hospital protocol.
A nurse receives a shift change report for a newborn who is 12 hours post-vaginal delivery. In
developing a plan of care, the nurse should give the highest priority to which finding?
A. Cyanosis of the hands and feet
B. Skin color that is slightly jaundiced
C. Tiny white papules on the nose or chin
D. Red patches on the cheeks and trunk –
A+ TEST BANK 3
, RN COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR
Correct Answer :B
Rationale:
Jaundice, a yellow skin coloration, is caused by elevated levels of bilirubin, which should be
further evaluated in a newborn <24 hours old. Acrocyanosis (blue color of the hands and feet) is
a common finding in newborns; it occurs because the capillary system is immature. Milia are
small white papules present on the nose and chin that are caused by sebaceous gland blockage
and disappear in a few weeks. Small red patches on the cheeks and trunk are called erythema
toxicum neonatorum, a common finding in newborns.
A client who is 3 days postpartum and breastfeeding asks the nurse how to reduce breast
engorgement. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
A. Avoid using the breast pump.
B. Breastfeed the infant every 2 hours.
C. Reduce fluid intake for 24 hours.
D. Skip feedings to let the sore breasts rest. –
Correct Answer :B
Rationale:
The mother should be instructed to attempt feeding her infant every 2 hours while massaging
the breasts as the infant is feeding. If the infant does not feed adequately and empty the breast,
using a breast pump helps extract the milk and relieve some of the discomfort. Dehydration
irritates swollen breast tissue. Skipping feedings may cause further engorgement and discomfort.
The client comes to the hospital assuming she is in labor. Which assessment findings by the
nurse would indicate that the client is in true labor? (Select all that apply.)
A. Pain in the lower back that radiates to abdomen
A+ TEST BANK 4
