Burns' Pediatric Primary Care 8th Edition Test Bank | 20
MCQs per Chapter
Pediatric Primary Care Test Bank & NCLEX-HESI
Review | Burns' 8th Edition
Question 1:
A 9-month-old infant presents for a well-child visit. The parent
asks why well visits are scheduled even when the child is
healthy. Which statement best reflects the role of pediatric
primary care?
A. Primary care focuses only on treating acute illnesses as they
arise.
B. Primary care combines health supervision, preventive
services, and anticipatory guidance to promote optimal
development.
C. Primary care is only responsible for immunizations and
growth measurements.
D. Primary care centers on specialty referrals rather than family
education.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: B is correct — pediatric primary care includes health
supervision, preventive services, screening, immunizations, and
anticipatory guidance to promote growth and development and
prevent problems. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because
they narrow the role too much: A ignores prevention and
,continuity, C omits developmental surveillance and counseling,
and D incorrectly prioritizes referrals over the medical-home
responsibilities of education and coordination. (Bright Futures
frames primary care as preventive and supervisory, not solely
episodic treatment). AAP
Question 2:
A 15-year-old with well-controlled asthma is seen in primary
care. Which approach best illustrates the difference between
primary care and primary prevention?
A. Administering albuterol during an exacerbation (primary
care) versus counseling on trigger avoidance (primary
prevention).
B. Prescribing an inhaled steroid (primary prevention) versus
scheduling follow-up (primary care).
C. Ordering pulmonary function tests (primary prevention)
versus giving booster immunizations (primary care).
D. Referring to pulmonology (primary prevention) versus
treating ear infections (primary care).
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A is correct — primary care includes management of
illness/exacerbation (albuterol), while primary prevention
focuses on preventing disease or recurrence (trigger avoidance
counseling, environmental control). B is incorrect because
prescribing controller medication is therapeutic/ongoing care
rather than primary prevention. C and D mix roles incorrectly:
,pulmonary function tests are diagnostic; referrals and acute ear
infection treatment are aspects of care, not proper pairings of
prevention vs primary care.
Question 3:
A clinic is developing a visit template based on Bright Futures.
Which action at the 2-week and 1-month well visits best aligns
with Bright Futures recommendations?
A. Skip developmental surveillance until 6 months because early
development is too variable.
B. Perform growth and feeding assessment, maternal
postpartum mood screening as appropriate, and anticipatory
guidance about feeding and sleep.
C. Only perform immunizations and document them.
D. Defer hearing and vision screening until school age.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: B is correct — Bright Futures emphasizes early
growth/feeding surveillance, maternal postpartum mood
screening when indicated, and anticipatory guidance at early
visits. A is wrong because early developmental surveillance
begins in infancy. C is too limited; D is incorrect as some
screenings (hearing risk assessment) occur earlier if concerns
exist and developmental surveillance is continuous. AAP+1
Question 4:
A 17-year-old with cerebral palsy and complex needs is
, approaching adulthood. Which is the most appropriate first
step in planning the health-care transition to adult services?
A. Wait until the patient turns 18 to begin transfer planning.
B. Start transition planning early in adolescence, including
assessing self-care skills and creating a medical summary.
C. Discharge from pediatric care abruptly once the patient can
walk independently.
D. Refer immediately to adult providers without family
involvement.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: B is correct — transition is a planned, gradual process
that should begin in early adolescence (often by mid-
adolescence), include periodic readiness assessments,
education on self-care, and preparation of a medical summary.
A is wrong—delaying planning risks gaps in care. C and D are
inappropriate and dangerous because they lack gradual
preparation and family-centered planning; transfer should be
coordinated. This aligns with AAP transition guidance
recommending an early, staged approach. Pediatrics
Publications+1
Question 5:
A parent of a 4-year-old asks why the clinician screens for
adverse childhood experiences (ACEs). Which statement best
explains the rationale?
A. ACE screening identifies single events that only affect mental
MCQs per Chapter
Pediatric Primary Care Test Bank & NCLEX-HESI
Review | Burns' 8th Edition
Question 1:
A 9-month-old infant presents for a well-child visit. The parent
asks why well visits are scheduled even when the child is
healthy. Which statement best reflects the role of pediatric
primary care?
A. Primary care focuses only on treating acute illnesses as they
arise.
B. Primary care combines health supervision, preventive
services, and anticipatory guidance to promote optimal
development.
C. Primary care is only responsible for immunizations and
growth measurements.
D. Primary care centers on specialty referrals rather than family
education.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: B is correct — pediatric primary care includes health
supervision, preventive services, screening, immunizations, and
anticipatory guidance to promote growth and development and
prevent problems. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because
they narrow the role too much: A ignores prevention and
,continuity, C omits developmental surveillance and counseling,
and D incorrectly prioritizes referrals over the medical-home
responsibilities of education and coordination. (Bright Futures
frames primary care as preventive and supervisory, not solely
episodic treatment). AAP
Question 2:
A 15-year-old with well-controlled asthma is seen in primary
care. Which approach best illustrates the difference between
primary care and primary prevention?
A. Administering albuterol during an exacerbation (primary
care) versus counseling on trigger avoidance (primary
prevention).
B. Prescribing an inhaled steroid (primary prevention) versus
scheduling follow-up (primary care).
C. Ordering pulmonary function tests (primary prevention)
versus giving booster immunizations (primary care).
D. Referring to pulmonology (primary prevention) versus
treating ear infections (primary care).
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A is correct — primary care includes management of
illness/exacerbation (albuterol), while primary prevention
focuses on preventing disease or recurrence (trigger avoidance
counseling, environmental control). B is incorrect because
prescribing controller medication is therapeutic/ongoing care
rather than primary prevention. C and D mix roles incorrectly:
,pulmonary function tests are diagnostic; referrals and acute ear
infection treatment are aspects of care, not proper pairings of
prevention vs primary care.
Question 3:
A clinic is developing a visit template based on Bright Futures.
Which action at the 2-week and 1-month well visits best aligns
with Bright Futures recommendations?
A. Skip developmental surveillance until 6 months because early
development is too variable.
B. Perform growth and feeding assessment, maternal
postpartum mood screening as appropriate, and anticipatory
guidance about feeding and sleep.
C. Only perform immunizations and document them.
D. Defer hearing and vision screening until school age.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: B is correct — Bright Futures emphasizes early
growth/feeding surveillance, maternal postpartum mood
screening when indicated, and anticipatory guidance at early
visits. A is wrong because early developmental surveillance
begins in infancy. C is too limited; D is incorrect as some
screenings (hearing risk assessment) occur earlier if concerns
exist and developmental surveillance is continuous. AAP+1
Question 4:
A 17-year-old with cerebral palsy and complex needs is
, approaching adulthood. Which is the most appropriate first
step in planning the health-care transition to adult services?
A. Wait until the patient turns 18 to begin transfer planning.
B. Start transition planning early in adolescence, including
assessing self-care skills and creating a medical summary.
C. Discharge from pediatric care abruptly once the patient can
walk independently.
D. Refer immediately to adult providers without family
involvement.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: B is correct — transition is a planned, gradual process
that should begin in early adolescence (often by mid-
adolescence), include periodic readiness assessments,
education on self-care, and preparation of a medical summary.
A is wrong—delaying planning risks gaps in care. C and D are
inappropriate and dangerous because they lack gradual
preparation and family-centered planning; transfer should be
coordinated. This aligns with AAP transition guidance
recommending an early, staged approach. Pediatrics
Publications+1
Question 5:
A parent of a 4-year-old asks why the clinician screens for
adverse childhood experiences (ACEs). Which statement best
explains the rationale?
A. ACE screening identifies single events that only affect mental
