Questions and Verified Answers 2025 |
Comprehensive ICU Exam Preparation Guide
Introduction:
This document provides a complete set of verified FCCS
(Fundamental Critical Care Support) exam-style questions and
answers for 2025. It covers key intensive care topics such as airway
management, mechanical ventilation, sepsis, trauma, shock, cardiac
arrest, burns, and metabolic emergencies. The content is designed
to support ICU clinicians, residents, and nurses preparing for
certification or professional exams, with scenario-based multiple-
choice questions reflecting current critical care protocols.
Questions and Answers:
A 24yoM admitted to ICU after falling from roof. Admission CT
reveals left frontal lobe contusion. No intubation is required.
Patient on 3L NC. Observed to have a generalized seizure.
Which of the following best characterizes the most appropriate
initial management?
,A) phenytoin, 18-20 mg/kg IV, should be administered as rapidly
as possible
B) no drug therapy indicated unless ICP exceeds 25 mmHg
C) IV benzodiazepine, such as lorazepam, 0.1 mg/kg,
administered at the onset of seizure activity, may terminate the
seizure
D) IV neuromuscular relaxant such as vecuronium (10,g) should
be administered to decrease the cerebral oxygen requirement -
Answer:-C) an IV benzodiazepine, such as lorazepam, 0.1 mg/kg,
administered at the onset of seizure activity, may terminate the
seizure.
A patient is neurologically devastated, mechanically ventilated,
and undergoing dialysis. Neurology. says no expectation of
neurologic recovery or improvement. The family is resistant to
any decision regarding limiting or stopping life-sustaining
treatment. Multiple discussion have occurred in the past 6 weeks.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
A) begin the formal conflict-resolution process
B) continue to offer every medical and surgical treatment
C) stop all life-sustaining therapy
,D) file a unilateral do-not-attempt-resuscitation order -Answer:-
A) begin the formal conflict-resolution process
An 84yoM with unknown PMHx brought to ED after falling down
flight of stairs. Initial HR 101, BP 109/76, SpO2 on RA is 98%. GCS
15. He has neck pain and irritation of C-spine collar. Large
laceration over left temporal side of head that is hemostatic, and a
ridge along this area is palpated. On secondary survey, he
becomes somnolent, SpO2 decreases to 92%, BP decreases to
104/72, and HR 112. He only opens his eyes to painful stimuli,
and he grunts and localizes pain with his right arm only. Left pupil
is now larger than right.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step for this
patient?
A) administer naloxone, 0.4 mg IV bolus
B) consult neurosurgery and, if not available, transfer to a tertiary
facility
C) secure the patient's airway by endotracheal intubation with in-
line cervical stabilization
D) initiate noninvasive positive pressure ventilation -Answer:-C)
secure the patient's airway by endotracheal intubation with in-
line cervical stabilization
, A 19yoF transferred from a critical access hospital after
presenting with fever, tachycardia, and hypotension. Underwent
laparoscopic appendectomy 8 days ago. CT abdomen/pelvis
reveals 5x6cm rim-enhancing fluid collection in RLQ. WBC is 18,
temp 38.9 (102F), HR 124, lactic acid 4.8.
In addition to fluid resuscitation and broad-spectrum antibiotics,
which of the following interventions will be most beneficial in
treating her sepsis?
A) IV hydrocortisone
B) norepinephrine infusion
C) percutaneous abscess drainage
D) sodium bicarbonate infusion -Answer:-C) percutaneous
abscess drainage
A 52yoM presents to the ED with SOB and new-onset lower
extremity edema. Vitals: temp 37 (98.6F), HR 114, RR 28, BP
86/62, SpO2 92% on nonrebreather. Transferred to ICU,
intubated, and central line is placed. TTE shows significantly
reduced LV function. Hgb 9.2, lactic acid 4.2, and central venous
oxygen saturation 43%.