NR565 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm Test Bank – 2025-2026
Verified Questions and Correct Answers for Nurse Practitioner
Students||Latest Version!!!
What is the purpose of the Genetic Information Non-Discriminatory
Act? - Answer-Protects patients from discrimination by employers
and insurance providers based on genetic information
Difference between practice authority and prescriptive authority? -
Answer-Practice authority refers to the nurse practitioner's ability to
practice without physician oversight, whereas prescriptive authority
refers to the nurse practitioner's authority to prescribe medications
independently and without limitations.
Who regulates prescriptive authority? - Answer-the jurisdiction of a
health professional board. This may be the State Board of Nursing,
the State Board of Medicine, or the State Board of Pharmacy, as
determined by each state.
What is scope of practice determined by? - Answer-is determined by
state practice and licensure laws.
What is full practice authority? - Answer-Nurse practitioners have the
autonomy to evaluate patients, diagnose, order and interpret tests,
initiate and manage treatments and prescribe medications, including
controlled substances without physician oversight.
What is reduced practice authority? - Answer-Nurse practitioners are
limited in at least one element of practice. The state requires a formal
collaborative agreement with an outside health discipline for the nurse
practitioner to provide patient care. ex/ physician involvement for 5
yrs than independent
What is restricted practice authority? - Answer-Nurse practitioners are
limited in at least one element of practice by requiring supervision,
delegation, or team management by an outside health discipline for
the nurse practitioner to provide patient care.- typically doctor on site
pg. 1
,During what trimester is a pregnant woman most at risk for adverse
drug reactions with potential long term consequences? - Answer-1st
trimester (fetus most at risk d/t rapid growth)
What is BEERS criteria? - Answer-Recommendations of medications
inappropriate for elderly (65 and older), prescriber ultimately decides
What is the CYP450 (cytochrome P450) - Answer-liver enzyme
system where medications are metabolized, can either be inducers or
inhibitors and create drug-drug interactions
CYP450 inducers - Answer-Speed up metabolism of drugs (drug is
cleared faster), drug has lesser effect (decrease blood levels of drug),
elevate CYP450 enzymes
CYP450 inducers pneumonic - Answer-"Bullshit Crap GPS
INDUCES rage"
CYP450 inducer drug names - Answer-Barbituates, St John wort,
Carbamazepine, rifampin, alcohol, phenytoin, griseofulvin,
phenobarbital, sulfonylureas
CYP450 inhibitors - Answer-inhibit metabolism, increase blood levels
of medications
CYP450 pneumonic - Answer-"VISA credit card debt INHIBITS
spending on designers like CK to look GQ"
CYP450 inhibitors drug names - Answer-Valproate, isoniazid,
sulfonamides, amiodarone, chloramphenicol, ketoconazole, grapefruit
juice, quinidine
Physiological changes during pregnancy that impact
pharmacodynamics and pharmacokinetic properties of drugs? -
Answer-increase glomerular filtration rate leads to increase durg
excretion
increase hepatic metabolism
decrease tone and motility of bowel
increase drug absorption
pg. 2
,Examples of medications that can be teratogenic - Answer-
Antiepileptic drugs, antimicrobials such as tetracyclines and
fluoroquinolones, vitamin A in large doses, some anticoagulants, and
hormonal medications such as diethylstilbestrol (DES).
How is absorption of intramuscular medications different in neonates?
- Answer-slow and erratic due to low blood flow in muscles first few
days of life
Why is absorption of medication in the stomach increased in infancy?
- Answer-delayed gastric emptying
Some medications that should be avoided in the pediatric patient? -
Answer-glucocorticoids, discoloration of developing teeth with
tetracyclines, and kernicterus with sulfonamides, levofloxacin
(antibiotics)
aspirin (Severe intoxication from acute overdose)
what should be included in medication administration patient
education? - Answer-
dosage size and timing
route and technique of administration
duration of treatment
drug storage
nature and time course of desired responses
nature and time course of adverse responses
finish taking antibiotic
What are some things that put the elderly patient at higher risk for
adverse drug reactions? - Answer-
reduced renal function
polypharmacy (the use of five or more medications daily)
greater severity of illness
pg. 3
, presence of comorbidities
use of drugs that have a low therapeutic index (e.g., digoxin)
increased individual variation secondary to altered pharmacokinetics
inadequate supervision of long-term therapy
poor patient adherence
How can healthcare providers decrease likelihood of an elderly
patient experiencing an adverse drug reaction? - Answer-
obtaining a thorough drug history that includes over-the-counter
medications
considering pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamics changes due to
age
monitoring the patient's clinical response and plasma drug levels
using the simplest regimen possible
monitoring for drug-drug interactions and iatrogenic illness
periodically reviewing the need for continued drug therapy
encouraging the patient to dispose of old medications
taking steps to promote adherence and to avoid drugs on the Beers list
How can we promote medication adherence with elderly patients? -
Answer-
simplifying drug regimens
providing clear and concise verbal and written instructions
using an appropriate dosage form
clearly labeling and dispensing easy-to-open containers
developing daily reminders
monitoring frequently
affordability of drugs
pg. 4
Verified Questions and Correct Answers for Nurse Practitioner
Students||Latest Version!!!
What is the purpose of the Genetic Information Non-Discriminatory
Act? - Answer-Protects patients from discrimination by employers
and insurance providers based on genetic information
Difference between practice authority and prescriptive authority? -
Answer-Practice authority refers to the nurse practitioner's ability to
practice without physician oversight, whereas prescriptive authority
refers to the nurse practitioner's authority to prescribe medications
independently and without limitations.
Who regulates prescriptive authority? - Answer-the jurisdiction of a
health professional board. This may be the State Board of Nursing,
the State Board of Medicine, or the State Board of Pharmacy, as
determined by each state.
What is scope of practice determined by? - Answer-is determined by
state practice and licensure laws.
What is full practice authority? - Answer-Nurse practitioners have the
autonomy to evaluate patients, diagnose, order and interpret tests,
initiate and manage treatments and prescribe medications, including
controlled substances without physician oversight.
What is reduced practice authority? - Answer-Nurse practitioners are
limited in at least one element of practice. The state requires a formal
collaborative agreement with an outside health discipline for the nurse
practitioner to provide patient care. ex/ physician involvement for 5
yrs than independent
What is restricted practice authority? - Answer-Nurse practitioners are
limited in at least one element of practice by requiring supervision,
delegation, or team management by an outside health discipline for
the nurse practitioner to provide patient care.- typically doctor on site
pg. 1
,During what trimester is a pregnant woman most at risk for adverse
drug reactions with potential long term consequences? - Answer-1st
trimester (fetus most at risk d/t rapid growth)
What is BEERS criteria? - Answer-Recommendations of medications
inappropriate for elderly (65 and older), prescriber ultimately decides
What is the CYP450 (cytochrome P450) - Answer-liver enzyme
system where medications are metabolized, can either be inducers or
inhibitors and create drug-drug interactions
CYP450 inducers - Answer-Speed up metabolism of drugs (drug is
cleared faster), drug has lesser effect (decrease blood levels of drug),
elevate CYP450 enzymes
CYP450 inducers pneumonic - Answer-"Bullshit Crap GPS
INDUCES rage"
CYP450 inducer drug names - Answer-Barbituates, St John wort,
Carbamazepine, rifampin, alcohol, phenytoin, griseofulvin,
phenobarbital, sulfonylureas
CYP450 inhibitors - Answer-inhibit metabolism, increase blood levels
of medications
CYP450 pneumonic - Answer-"VISA credit card debt INHIBITS
spending on designers like CK to look GQ"
CYP450 inhibitors drug names - Answer-Valproate, isoniazid,
sulfonamides, amiodarone, chloramphenicol, ketoconazole, grapefruit
juice, quinidine
Physiological changes during pregnancy that impact
pharmacodynamics and pharmacokinetic properties of drugs? -
Answer-increase glomerular filtration rate leads to increase durg
excretion
increase hepatic metabolism
decrease tone and motility of bowel
increase drug absorption
pg. 2
,Examples of medications that can be teratogenic - Answer-
Antiepileptic drugs, antimicrobials such as tetracyclines and
fluoroquinolones, vitamin A in large doses, some anticoagulants, and
hormonal medications such as diethylstilbestrol (DES).
How is absorption of intramuscular medications different in neonates?
- Answer-slow and erratic due to low blood flow in muscles first few
days of life
Why is absorption of medication in the stomach increased in infancy?
- Answer-delayed gastric emptying
Some medications that should be avoided in the pediatric patient? -
Answer-glucocorticoids, discoloration of developing teeth with
tetracyclines, and kernicterus with sulfonamides, levofloxacin
(antibiotics)
aspirin (Severe intoxication from acute overdose)
what should be included in medication administration patient
education? - Answer-
dosage size and timing
route and technique of administration
duration of treatment
drug storage
nature and time course of desired responses
nature and time course of adverse responses
finish taking antibiotic
What are some things that put the elderly patient at higher risk for
adverse drug reactions? - Answer-
reduced renal function
polypharmacy (the use of five or more medications daily)
greater severity of illness
pg. 3
, presence of comorbidities
use of drugs that have a low therapeutic index (e.g., digoxin)
increased individual variation secondary to altered pharmacokinetics
inadequate supervision of long-term therapy
poor patient adherence
How can healthcare providers decrease likelihood of an elderly
patient experiencing an adverse drug reaction? - Answer-
obtaining a thorough drug history that includes over-the-counter
medications
considering pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamics changes due to
age
monitoring the patient's clinical response and plasma drug levels
using the simplest regimen possible
monitoring for drug-drug interactions and iatrogenic illness
periodically reviewing the need for continued drug therapy
encouraging the patient to dispose of old medications
taking steps to promote adherence and to avoid drugs on the Beers list
How can we promote medication adherence with elderly patients? -
Answer-
simplifying drug regimens
providing clear and concise verbal and written instructions
using an appropriate dosage form
clearly labeling and dispensing easy-to-open containers
developing daily reminders
monitoring frequently
affordability of drugs
pg. 4
